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QUESTION 151
Which technique allows specific VLANs to be strictly permitted by the administrator?
A. VTP pruning
B. transparent bridging
C. trunk-allowed VLANs
D. VLAN access-list
E. L2P tunneling
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QUESTION 126
Refer to the exhibit, which statement abort the current configuration on port GigabitEthernet2/0/1 is true?
A. It is an access port configured for a phone and a PC
B. It is a trunk port and the native VLAN is VLAN1
C. It is a trunk port and the natrve VL AN m VLAN 700
D. It is an access port in VLAN 700
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QUESTION 201
Which IP SLA operation requires Cisco endpoints?
A. UDP Jitter for VoIP
B. ICMP Path Echo
C. ICMP Echo
D. UDP Jitter
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QUESTION 181
Drag and Drop Question
Drag and drop the BGP states from the left to the matching definitions on the right.
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QUESTION 161
On which two types of interface is Frame Relay switching supported? (Choose two.)
A. serial interfaces
B. Ethernet interfaces
C. fiber interfaces
D. ISDN interfaces
E. auxiliary interfaces
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QUESTION 141
What is the primary service that is provided when you implement Cisco Easy Virtual Network?
A. It requires and enhances the use of VRF-Lite.
B. It reduces the need for common services separation.
C. It allows for traffic separation and improved network efficiency.
D. It introduces multi-VRF and label-prone network segmentation.
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QUESTION 326
An engineer is performing an international multisite deployment and wants to create an effective backup method to access TEHO destinations in case the call limit triggers. Which technology provides this ability?
A. AAR
B. CFUR
C. LRG
D. SRST
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QUESTION 301
Refer to the exhibit. Which option describes the effect of this configuration?
A. It implements Cisco United CME redundancy.
B. It creates dial peers.
C. It configures failover.
D. It configures a standby Cisco Unified CME.
E. It implements HSRP.
F. It implements Cisco IOS redundancy.
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QUESTION 276
How can the location setting be modified to resolve poor call quality?
A. No adjustment to location setting is needed
B. Mark the bandwidth between the locations as unlimited
C. Decrease the audio bandwidth setting
D. Remove the audio bandwidth setting
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QUESTION 251
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the configuration between the Default and BR regions is true?
A. Calls between the two regions can use either 64 kbps or 8 kbps.
B. Calls between the two regions can use only the G.729 codec.
C. Only 64 kbps will be used between the two regions because the link is “lossy”.
D. Both codecs can be used depending on the loss statistics of the link.
When lossy conditions are high, the G.711 codec will be used.
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QUESTION 1
You are a security analyst performing a penetration tests for a company in the Midwest. After some initial reconnaissance, you discover the IP addresses of some Cisco routers used by the company. You type in the following URL that includes the IP address of one of the routers:
http://172.168.4.131/level/99/exec/show/config
After typing in this URL, you are presented with the entire configuration file for that router.
What have you discovered?
A. URL Obfuscation Arbitrary Administrative Access Vulnerability
B. HTML Configuration Arbitrary Administrative Access Vulnerability
C. Cisco IOS Arbitrary Administrative Access Online Vulnerability
D. HTTP Configuration Arbitrary Administrative Access Vulnerability Answer:
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QUESTION 65
Which of the following options represent NIST methods of classifying cloud implementations? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Providers
B. Deployment models
C. OPEX and CAPEX
D. Service models
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QUESTION 181
A data breach has occurred and your company database has been copied. Which security principle has been violated?
A. Confidentiality
B. Access
C. Control
D. Availability
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QUESTION 161
What configuration allows AnyConnect to authenticate automatically establish a VPN session when a user logs in to the computer?
A. proxy
B. Trusted Network Detection
C. transparent mode
D. always-on
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QUESTION 141
Which two next-generation encryption algorithms does Cisco recommends? (Choose two)
A. SHA-384
B. MD5
C. DH-1024
D. DES
E. AES
F. 3DES
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QUESTION 121
Which statement correctly describes the function of a private VLAN?
A. A private VLAN partitions the Layer 2 broadcast domain of a VLAN into subdomains
B. A private VLAN partitions the Layer 3 broadcast domain of a VLAN into subdomains
C. A private VLAN enables the creation of multiple VLANs using one broadcast domain
D. A private VLAN combines the Layer 2 broadcast domains of many VLANs into one major
broadcast domain
Answer: A
QUESTION 122
Which Cisco feature can help mitigate spoofing attacks by verifying symmetry of the traffic path?
A. Unidirectional Link Detection
B. Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding
C. TrustSec
D. IP Source Guard
Answer: B
QUESTION 123
What is the most common Cisco Discovery Protocol version 1 attack?
A. Denial of Service
B. MAC-address spoofing
C. CAM-table overflow
D. VLAN hopping
Answer: A
QUESTION 124
What is the Cisco preferred countermeasure to mitigate CAM overflows?
A. Port security
B. Dynamic port security
C. IP source guard
D. Root guard
Answer: B
QUESTION 125
When a switch has multiple links connected to a downstream switch, what is the first step that STP takes to prevent loops?
A. STP elects the root bridge
B. STP selects the root port
C. STP selects the designated port
D. STP blocks one of the ports
Answer: A
QUESTION 126
Which countermeasures can mitigate ARP spoofing attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Port security
B. DHCP snooping
C. IP source guard
D. Dynamic ARP inspection
Answer: BD
QUESTION 127
Which of the following statements about access lists are true? (Choose three.)
A. Extended access lists should be placed as near as possible to the destination
B. Extended access lists should be placed as near as possible to the source
C. Standard access lists should be placed as near as possible to the destination
D. Standard access lists should be placed as near as possible to the source
E. Standard access lists filter on the source address
F. Standard access lists filter on the destination address
Answer: BCE
QUESTION 128
In which stage of an attack does the attacker discover devices on a target network?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Covering tracks
C. Gaining access
D. Maintaining access
Answer: A
QUESTION 129
Which type of security control is defense in depth?
A. Threat mitigation
B. Risk analysis
C. Botnet mitigation
D. Overt and covert channels
Answer: A
QUESTION 130
On which Cisco Configuration Professional screen do you enable AAA?
A. AAA Summary
B. AAA Servers and Groups
C. Authentication Policies
D. Authorization Policies
Answer: A
QUESTION 131
Which three statements about Cisco host-based IPS solution are true? (Choose three)
A. It work with deployed firewalls.
B. It can be deployed at the perimeter
C. It uses signature-based policies
D. It can have more restrictive policies than network-based IPS
E. It can generate alerts based on behavior at the desktop level
F. It can view encrypted files
Answer: DEF
Explanation:
The key word here is ‘Cisco’, and Cisco’s host-based IPS, CSA, is NOT signature-based and CAN view encrypted files.
QUESTION 132
What are two users of SIEM software? (Choose two)
A. performing automatic network audits
B. configuring firewall and IDS devices
C. alerting administrators to security events in real time
D. scanning emails for suspicious attachments
E. collecting and archiving syslog data
Answer: CE
Explanation:
The other choices are not functions of SIEM software.
QUESTION 133
If a packet matches more than one class map in an individual feature type’s policy map, how does the ASA handle the packet?
A. the ASA will apply the actions from only the last matching class maps it finds for the feature type.
B. the ASA will apply the actions from all matching class maps it finds for the feature type.
C. the ASA will apply the actions from only the most specific matching class map it finds for the feature type.
D. the ASA will apply the actions from only the first matching class maps it finds for the feature type
Answer: D
Explanation:
If it matches a class map for a given feature type, it will NOT attempt to match to any subsequent class maps.
QUESTION 134
What statement provides the best definition of malware?
A. Malware is tools and applications that remove unwanted programs.
B. Malware is a software used by nation states to commit cyber-crimes.
C. Malware is unwanted software that is harmful or destructive
D. Malware is a collection of worms, viruses and Trojan horses that is distributed as a single…..
Answer: C
QUESTION 135
Your security team has discovered a malicious program that has been harvesting the CEO’s email messages and the company’s user database for the last 6 months.
What are two possible types of attacks your team discovered?
A. social activism
B. advanced persistent threat
C. drive-by spyware
D. targeted malware
Answer: B
Explanation:
If required 2 answers in the real exam, please choose BD.
QUESTION 136
Which FirePOWER preprocessor engine is used to prevent SYN attacks?
A. Anomaly.
B. Rate-Based Prevention
C. Portscan Detection
D. Inline Normalization
Answer: B
QUESTION 137
What is the only permitted operation for processing multicast traffic on zone-based firewalls?
A. Stateful inspection of multicast traffic is supported only for the self-zone.
B. Stateful inspection of multicast traffic is supported only between the self-zone and the internal zone.
C. Only control plane policing can protect the control plane against multicast traffic.
D. Stateful inspection of multicast traffic is supported only for the internal zone
Answer: C
Explanation:
Stateful inspection of multicast traffic is NOT supported by Cisco Zone based firewalls OR Cisco Classic firewall.
QUESTION 138
Which of encryption technology has the broadcast platform support to protect operating systems?
A. Middleware
B. Hardware
C. software
D. file-level
Answer: C
QUESTION 139
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and sophisticated phishing attack?
A. holistic understanding of threats
B. graymail management and filtering
C. signature-based IPS
D. contextual analysis
Answer: D
QUESTION 140
Which Sourfire secure action should you choose if you want to block only malicious traffic from a particular end-user?
A. Trust
B. Block
C. Allow without inspection
D. Monitor
E. Allow with inspection
Answer: E
Explanation:
Allow with Inspection allows all traffic except for malicious traffic from a particular end-user. The other options are too restrictive, too permissive, or don’t exist.
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