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QUESTION 21
Which of the following is a definition of an RFP?

A.    A document sent to potential vendors to solicit a bid for a project
B.    A document sent to potential vendors to request information for skills and experience for a project
C.    A document sent to potential vendors to request a commitment for a project
D.    A document sent to potential vendors to solicit information that excludes pricing information for a project (more…)

April 18th, 2018

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QUESTION 21
Which two methods can be used to mitigate resource exhaustion of an application server? (Choose two)

A.    Vulnerability Object
B.    DoS Protection Profile
C.    Data Filtering Profile
D.    Zone Protection Profile (more…)

April 18th, 2018

Posted In: Palo Alto Networks, PCNSE7 Dumps, PCNSE7 Exam Questions, PCNSE7 New Questions, PCNSE7 PDF, PCNSE7 VCE

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QUESTION 11
Which two web filtering inspection modes inspect the full URL? (Choose two.)

A.    DNS-based.
B.    Proxy-based.
C.    Flow-based.
D.    URL-based. (more…)

April 18th, 2018

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QUESTION 21
Which NetApp management tool verifies the disk-shelf cabling of an existing NetApp cluster?

A.    System Setup
B.    Config Advisor
C.    OnCommand Unified Manager
D.    OnCommand System Manager (more…)

April 17th, 2018

Posted In: NetApp, NS0-158 Dumps, NS0-158 Exam Questions, NS0-158 New Questions, NS0-158 PDF, NS0-158 VCE

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QUESTION 21
A technician wants to separate networks on a switch. Which of the following should be configured to allow this?

A.    VLAN
B.    Trunking
C.    Spanning tree
D.    Traffic filtering

(more…)

April 17th, 2018

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QUESTION 21
You are a developer for an Independent Software Vendor (ISV).

You need to create new extended data types in Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Finance and Operations.

What are two best practices for extending a series of data types?Each correct answer presents acomplete solution.

A.    An EDT should be created for each atomic entity being utilized.
B.    Subtypes are not required for EDTs that do not contain any property changes.
C.    You cannot extend the recID or tableID system data types.
D.    You cannot use EDTs if one of them is a member of the parent extended data.

(more…)

April 17th, 2018

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QUESTION 21
You are processing a customer payment and want to generate a payment line based on due date so that you can search the invoice lines that meet selected search criteria.
What should you do?

A.    Use Settlement
B.    Use payment transfer.
C.    Use Manual Payment Journal
D.    Use Payment proposal (more…)

April 17th, 2018

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QUESTION 21
You are an accounts receivable manager.
You company wants its top 10customers in August to receive a best-selling product at a reduce price.
You need to establish a price.
Which two actions should you perform to configure Microsoft Dynamics AX Distribution and Trade for this task? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Set up the item sales price in the released product table.
B.    Set up a Customer group for the 10 customers to be assigned to.
C.    Set up a price/discount journal.
D.    Set up a Price/Discount group for the 10 customers. (more…)

April 17th, 2018

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QUESTION 41
Which policy statement will be applied to neighbor 172.16.4.2?

A.    policy-statement all and policy -statement agg
B.    policy-statement agg
C.    policy-statement all and policy -statement atat
D.    policy-statement atat (more…)

April 16th, 2018

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QUESTION 21
Review the following results:

211

Which of the following has occurred?

A.    This is normal network traffic.
B.    123.120.110.212 is infected with a Trojan.
C.    172.29.0.109 is infected with a worm.
D.    172.29.0.109 is infected with a Trojan.

Answer: A

QUESTION 22
A security analyst is creating baseline system images to remediate vulnerabilities found in different operating systems. Each image needs to be scanned before it is deployed.
The security analyst must ensure the configurations match industry standard benchmarks and the process can be repeated frequently.
Which of the following vulnerability options would BEST create the process requirements?

A.    Utilizing an operating system SCAP plugin
B.    Utilizing an authorized credential scan
C.    Utilizing a non-credential scan
D.    Utilizing a known malware plugin

Answer: A

QUESTION 23
A network technician is concerned that an attacker is attempting to penetrate the network, and wants to set a rule on the firewall to prevent the attacker from learning which IP addresses are valid on the network. Which of the following protocols needs to be denied?

A.    TCP
B.    SMTP
C.    ICMP
D.    ARP

Answer: C

QUESTION 24
An analyst wants to use a command line tool to identify open ports and running services on a host along with the application that is associated with those services and port.
Which of the following should the analyst use?

A.    Wireshark
B.    Qualys
C.    netstat
D.    nmap
E.    ping

Answer: C

QUESTION 25
In order to meet regulatory compliance objectives for the storage of PHI, vulnerability scans must be conducted on a continuous basis.
The last completed scan of the network returned 5,682 possible vulnerabilities.
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) would like to establish a remediation plan to resolve all known issues.
Which of the following is the BEST way to proceed?

A.    Attempt to identify all false positives and exceptions, and then resolve all remaining items.
B.    Hold off on additional scanning until the current list of vulnerabilities have been resolved.
C.    Place assets that handle PHI in a sandbox environment, and then resolve all vulnerabilities.
D.    Reduce the scan to items identified as critical in the asset inventory, and resolve these issues first.

Answer: D

QUESTION 26
An administrator has been investigating the way in which an actor had been exfiltrating confidential data from a web server to a foreign host.
After a thorough forensic review, the administrator determined the server’s BIOS had been modified by rootkit installation.
After removing the rootkit and flashing the BIOS to a known good state, which of the following would BEST protect against future adversary access to the BIOS, in case another rootkit is installed?

A.    Anti-malware application
B.    Host-based IDS
C.    TPM data sealing
D.    File integrity monitoring

Answer: C

QUESTION 27
A security analyst is reviewing the following log after enabling key-based authentication.
271

Given the above information, which of the following steps should be performed NEXT to secure the system?

A.    Disable anonymous SSH logins.
B.    Disable password authentication for SSH.
C.    Disable SSHv1.
D.    Disable remote root SSH logins.

Answer: B

QUESTION 28
A cybersecurity analyst has received a report that multiple systems are experiencing slowness as a result of a DDoS attack.
Which of the following would be the BEST action for the cybersecurity analyst to perform?

A.    Continue monitoring critical systems.
B.    Shut down all server interfaces.
C.    Inform management of the incident.
D.    Inform users regarding the affected systems.

Answer: C

QUESTION 29
A security professional is analyzing the results of a network utilization report. The report includes the following information:

291

Which of the following servers needs further investigation?

A.    hr.dbprod.01
B.    R&D.file.srvr.01
C.    mrktg.file.srvr.02
D.    web.srvr.03

Answer: B

QUESTION 30
A cybersecurity analyst has several SIEM event logs to review for possible APT activity.
The analyst was given several items that include lists of indicators for both IP addresses and domains.
Which of the following actions is the BEST approach for the analyst to perform?

A.    Use the IP addresses to search through the event logs.
B.    Analyze the trends of the events while manually reviewing to see if any of the indicators match.
C.    Create an advanced query that includes all of the indicators, and review any of the matches.
D.    Scan for vulnerabilities with exploits known to have been used by an APT.

Answer: B

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April 16th, 2018

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QUESTION 21
What is called the percentage of valid subjects that are falsely rejected by a Biometric Authentication system?

A.    False Rejection Rate (FRR) or Type I Error
B.    False Acceptance Rate (FAR) or Type II Error
C.    Crossover Error Rate (CER)
D.    True Rejection Rate (TRR) or Type III Error

(more…)

April 16th, 2018

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QUESTION 21
A company is developing a new web application for its Internet users and is following a secure coding methodology.
Which of the following methods would BEST assist the developers in determining if any unknown vulnerabilities are present?

A.    Conduct web server load tests.
B.    Conduct static code analysis.
C.    Conduct fuzzing attacks.
D.    Conduct SQL injection and XSS attacks.

(more…)

April 16th, 2018

Posted In: CAS-002 Dumps, CAS-002 Exam Questions, CAS-002 New Questions, CAS-002 PDF, CAS-002 VCE, CompTIA

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QUESTION 21
Which of the following is an entry in an object’s discretionary access control list (DACL) that grants permissions to a user or group?

A.    Access control entry (ACE)
B.    Discretionary access control entry (DACE)
C.    Access control list (ACL)
D.    Security Identifier (SID)

Answer: A

QUESTION 22
You are the project manager for your organization. You have identified a risk event you’re your organization could manage internally or externally. If you manage the event internally it will cost your project $578,000 and an additional $12,000 per month the solution is in use. A vendor can manage the risk event for you. The vendor will charge $550,000 and $14,500 per month that the solution is in use. How many months will you need to use the solution to pay for the internal solution in comparison to the vendor’s solution?

A.    Approximately 13 months
B.    Approximately 11 months
C.    Approximately 15 months
D.    Approximately 8 months

Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which of the following refers to the ability to ensure that the data is not modified or tampered with?

A.    Confidentiality
B.    Availability
C.    Integrity
D.    Non-repudiation

Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Management wants you to create a visual diagram of what resources will be utilized in the project deliverables. What type of a chart is management asking you to create?

A.    Work breakdown structure
B.    Resource breakdown structure
C.    RACI chart
D.    Roles and responsibility matrix

Answer: B

QUESTION 25
You are preparing to start the qualitative risk analysis process for your project. You will be relying on some organizational process assets to influence the process. Which one of the following is NOT a probable reason for relying on organizational process assets as an input for qualitative risk analysis?

A.    Information on prior, similar projects
B.    Review of vendor contracts to examine risks in past projects
C.    Risk databases that may be available from industry sources
D.    Studies of similar projects by risk specialists

Answer: B

QUESTION 26
System Authorization is the risk management process. System Authorization Plan (SAP) is a comprehensive and uniform approach to the System Authorization Process. What are the different phases of System Authorization Plan?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

A.    Pre-certification
B.    Certification
C.    Post-certification
D.    Authorization
E.    Post-Authorization

Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 27
A part of a project deals with the hardware work. As a project manager, you have decided to hire a company to deal with all hardware work on the project. Which type of risk response is this?

A.    Avoidance
B.    Mitigation
C.    Exploit
D.    Transference

Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Risks with low ratings of probability and impact are included on a ____ for future monitoring.

A.    Watchlist
B.    Risk alarm
C.    Observation list
D.    Risk register

Answer: A

QUESTION 29
You are the project manager for your organization. You are preparing for the quantitative risk analysis. Mark, a project team member, wants to know why you need to do quantitative risk analysis when you just completed qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following statements best defines what quantitative risk analysis is?

A.    Quantitative risk analysis is the planning and quantification of risk responses based on probability and impact of each risk event.
B.    Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
C.    Quantitative risk analysis is the review of the risk events with the high probability and the highest impact on the project objectives.
D.    Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.

Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Frank is the project manager of the NHH Project. He is working with the project team to create a plan to document the procedures to manage risks throughout the project. This document will define how risks will be identified and quantified. It will also define how contingency plans will be implemented by the project team. What document is Frank and the NHH Project team creating in this scenario?

A.    Project management plan
B.    Resource management plan
C.    Risk management plan
D.    Project plan

Answer: C

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QUESTION 61
When an 802.11 client roams what device decides when to move the client to another AP?

A.    Aruba AP
B.    Aruba controller
C.    Client
D.    Radius Server
E.    Router

(more…)

April 14th, 2018

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QUESTION 21
Which three options are actions to realize the benefits? (Choose three.)

A.    Progress should be measured once the solution is deployed.
B.    Should take into account the relationship with the stakeholder.
C.    Should focus on measurable results.
D.    May be based on assumptions and risks.
E.    Include actions on the way, plus those already identified.

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 22
Which three options are stages of the Benefit Realization Management? (Choose three.)

A.    Benefits accounting.
B.    Benefits identification.
C.    Benefits roles.
D.    Benefit measurement, ranking and prioritization.
E.    Benefits monitoring and review.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 23
Which of the following describes a Viewpoint?

A.    A perspective expressed by one or more managers who share the same or similar role.
B.    A perspective expressed by one or more customers who may or may not share the same or similar role.
C.    The perspective or related set of concerns experienced by a group of stakeholders.
D.    An informal summary of project outcomes used in the management reporting and decision making process.

Answer: C

QUESTION 24
How might an understanding of business and technology dependencies assist in the development of a phased implementation roadmap?

A.    By enabling the creation of a risk mitigation plan to mitigate or reduce risk.
B.    By determining the level of technical and business support needed to implement each roadmap component.
C.    By helping to determine the most effective order in which each technology component should be implemented.
D.    By focusing the Solution Architect onto the most mission-critical aspects of the solution first.

Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Which three options are financial challenges when determining the financial value of a Cisco solution? (Choose three.)

A.    Financial resources are distributed across functional areas.
B.    Long term and cycles for deployment and adoption.
C.    Cost efficiencies and reductions.
D.    Difficulty to determine NPV.
E.    Increase revenue and margins.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 26
Which option is the best description for NPV?

A.    The adoption of licensed third-party solutions and services may result in a lower NPV.
B.    The NPV takes into consideration the direct and indirect costs of maintaining technology solutions and services.
C.    NPV is factored into the ROI calculation.
D.    The opportunity to reduce NPV is a measureable business outcome and benefit to the customer business.
E.    The NPV of technology solutions and services indicates the monetary value that those solutions bring to the business.

Answer: E

QUESTION 27
Which two options are direct financial benefits of the outcome-based sales? (Choose two.)

A.    Increased NPV.
B.    Lower project costs.
C.    Process efficiencies.
D.    Faster time to market for new solutions.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
Which two options are indirect financial benefits of the outcome-based sales? (Choose two.)

A.    Increased NPV.
B.    Lower project costs.
C.    Process efficiencies.
D.    Faster time to market for new solutions.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 29
Which two options are true regarding chargeback and showback? (Choose two.)

A.    Chargeback is an internal billing mechanism where departments directly pay for their consumption of IT services.
B.    Showback is an internal billing mechanism where departments directly pay for their consumption of IT services.
C.    Chargeback provides departments with visibility to their consumption of IT services but do not directly pay for the services.
D.    Showback provides departments with visibility to their consumption of IT services but do not directly pay for the services.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
What is the purpose of the Solution Business Impact Index?

A.    It is a number that identifies how sooner in the implementation roadmap should the benefits appear.
B.    It is a matrix that lists the solutions and business priorities of the customer, and ranks the solutions according to the impact they generate.
C.    It is a chart to display the importance of Cisco technologies.
D.    It is an alternative to the business outcome-based sales approach.

Answer: B

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QUESTION 21
Drag and Drop Question (more…)

April 13th, 2018

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