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QUESTION 21
What is called the percentage of valid subjects that are falsely rejected by a Biometric Authentication system?

A.    False Rejection Rate (FRR) or Type I Error
B.    False Acceptance Rate (FAR) or Type II Error
C.    Crossover Error Rate (CER)
D.    True Rejection Rate (TRR) or Type III Error

(more…)

April 16th, 2018

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QUESTION 21
A company is developing a new web application for its Internet users and is following a secure coding methodology.
Which of the following methods would BEST assist the developers in determining if any unknown vulnerabilities are present?

A.    Conduct web server load tests.
B.    Conduct static code analysis.
C.    Conduct fuzzing attacks.
D.    Conduct SQL injection and XSS attacks.

(more…)

April 16th, 2018

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QUESTION 21
Which of the following is an entry in an object’s discretionary access control list (DACL) that grants permissions to a user or group?

A.    Access control entry (ACE)
B.    Discretionary access control entry (DACE)
C.    Access control list (ACL)
D.    Security Identifier (SID)

Answer: A

QUESTION 22
You are the project manager for your organization. You have identified a risk event you’re your organization could manage internally or externally. If you manage the event internally it will cost your project $578,000 and an additional $12,000 per month the solution is in use. A vendor can manage the risk event for you. The vendor will charge $550,000 and $14,500 per month that the solution is in use. How many months will you need to use the solution to pay for the internal solution in comparison to the vendor’s solution?

A.    Approximately 13 months
B.    Approximately 11 months
C.    Approximately 15 months
D.    Approximately 8 months

Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which of the following refers to the ability to ensure that the data is not modified or tampered with?

A.    Confidentiality
B.    Availability
C.    Integrity
D.    Non-repudiation

Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Management wants you to create a visual diagram of what resources will be utilized in the project deliverables. What type of a chart is management asking you to create?

A.    Work breakdown structure
B.    Resource breakdown structure
C.    RACI chart
D.    Roles and responsibility matrix

Answer: B

QUESTION 25
You are preparing to start the qualitative risk analysis process for your project. You will be relying on some organizational process assets to influence the process. Which one of the following is NOT a probable reason for relying on organizational process assets as an input for qualitative risk analysis?

A.    Information on prior, similar projects
B.    Review of vendor contracts to examine risks in past projects
C.    Risk databases that may be available from industry sources
D.    Studies of similar projects by risk specialists

Answer: B

QUESTION 26
System Authorization is the risk management process. System Authorization Plan (SAP) is a comprehensive and uniform approach to the System Authorization Process. What are the different phases of System Authorization Plan?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

A.    Pre-certification
B.    Certification
C.    Post-certification
D.    Authorization
E.    Post-Authorization

Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 27
A part of a project deals with the hardware work. As a project manager, you have decided to hire a company to deal with all hardware work on the project. Which type of risk response is this?

A.    Avoidance
B.    Mitigation
C.    Exploit
D.    Transference

Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Risks with low ratings of probability and impact are included on a ____ for future monitoring.

A.    Watchlist
B.    Risk alarm
C.    Observation list
D.    Risk register

Answer: A

QUESTION 29
You are the project manager for your organization. You are preparing for the quantitative risk analysis. Mark, a project team member, wants to know why you need to do quantitative risk analysis when you just completed qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following statements best defines what quantitative risk analysis is?

A.    Quantitative risk analysis is the planning and quantification of risk responses based on probability and impact of each risk event.
B.    Quantitative risk analysis is the process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact.
C.    Quantitative risk analysis is the review of the risk events with the high probability and the highest impact on the project objectives.
D.    Quantitative risk analysis is the process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives.

Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Frank is the project manager of the NHH Project. He is working with the project team to create a plan to document the procedures to manage risks throughout the project. This document will define how risks will be identified and quantified. It will also define how contingency plans will be implemented by the project team. What document is Frank and the NHH Project team creating in this scenario?

A.    Project management plan
B.    Resource management plan
C.    Risk management plan
D.    Project plan

Answer: C

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April 16th, 2018

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QUESTION 61
When an 802.11 client roams what device decides when to move the client to another AP?

A.    Aruba AP
B.    Aruba controller
C.    Client
D.    Radius Server
E.    Router

(more…)

April 14th, 2018

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QUESTION 21
Which three options are actions to realize the benefits? (Choose three.)

A.    Progress should be measured once the solution is deployed.
B.    Should take into account the relationship with the stakeholder.
C.    Should focus on measurable results.
D.    May be based on assumptions and risks.
E.    Include actions on the way, plus those already identified.

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 22
Which three options are stages of the Benefit Realization Management? (Choose three.)

A.    Benefits accounting.
B.    Benefits identification.
C.    Benefits roles.
D.    Benefit measurement, ranking and prioritization.
E.    Benefits monitoring and review.

Answer: BDE

QUESTION 23
Which of the following describes a Viewpoint?

A.    A perspective expressed by one or more managers who share the same or similar role.
B.    A perspective expressed by one or more customers who may or may not share the same or similar role.
C.    The perspective or related set of concerns experienced by a group of stakeholders.
D.    An informal summary of project outcomes used in the management reporting and decision making process.

Answer: C

QUESTION 24
How might an understanding of business and technology dependencies assist in the development of a phased implementation roadmap?

A.    By enabling the creation of a risk mitigation plan to mitigate or reduce risk.
B.    By determining the level of technical and business support needed to implement each roadmap component.
C.    By helping to determine the most effective order in which each technology component should be implemented.
D.    By focusing the Solution Architect onto the most mission-critical aspects of the solution first.

Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Which three options are financial challenges when determining the financial value of a Cisco solution? (Choose three.)

A.    Financial resources are distributed across functional areas.
B.    Long term and cycles for deployment and adoption.
C.    Cost efficiencies and reductions.
D.    Difficulty to determine NPV.
E.    Increase revenue and margins.

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 26
Which option is the best description for NPV?

A.    The adoption of licensed third-party solutions and services may result in a lower NPV.
B.    The NPV takes into consideration the direct and indirect costs of maintaining technology solutions and services.
C.    NPV is factored into the ROI calculation.
D.    The opportunity to reduce NPV is a measureable business outcome and benefit to the customer business.
E.    The NPV of technology solutions and services indicates the monetary value that those solutions bring to the business.

Answer: E

QUESTION 27
Which two options are direct financial benefits of the outcome-based sales? (Choose two.)

A.    Increased NPV.
B.    Lower project costs.
C.    Process efficiencies.
D.    Faster time to market for new solutions.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
Which two options are indirect financial benefits of the outcome-based sales? (Choose two.)

A.    Increased NPV.
B.    Lower project costs.
C.    Process efficiencies.
D.    Faster time to market for new solutions.

Answer: CD

QUESTION 29
Which two options are true regarding chargeback and showback? (Choose two.)

A.    Chargeback is an internal billing mechanism where departments directly pay for their consumption of IT services.
B.    Showback is an internal billing mechanism where departments directly pay for their consumption of IT services.
C.    Chargeback provides departments with visibility to their consumption of IT services but do not directly pay for the services.
D.    Showback provides departments with visibility to their consumption of IT services but do not directly pay for the services.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 30
What is the purpose of the Solution Business Impact Index?

A.    It is a number that identifies how sooner in the implementation roadmap should the benefits appear.
B.    It is a matrix that lists the solutions and business priorities of the customer, and ranks the solutions according to the impact they generate.
C.    It is a chart to display the importance of Cisco technologies.
D.    It is an alternative to the business outcome-based sales approach.

Answer: B

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April 13th, 2018

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QUESTION 21
Drag and Drop Question (more…)

April 13th, 2018

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QUESTION 21
Which deployment model is the best solution for a simple installation with the most secure connection outside the production network forCisco Meeting Server?

A.    Scaled and Resilient Server Deployment
B.    Single Split Server Deployment
C.    Single Combined Server Deployment
D.    Scaled and Combined Server Deployment (more…)

April 13th, 2018

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QUESTION 21
You assign security roles to an owner team and each user on the team.
What effect does the security role that is assigned to the team have on the individual team members?

A.    The permissions for the user are used instead of those of the team.
B.    The user is granted the least restrictive permissions of the two roles.
C.    The permissions for the team are used instead of those of the user.
D.    The user is granted the most restrictive permissions of the two roles.

(more…)

April 12th, 2018

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QUESTION 21
Which two attacks target the data link layer in a switched environment? (Choose two.)

A.    VLAN attacks
B.    IP source routing
C.    MAC address floods
D.    DHCP-based IP redirection attacks
E.    Spanning-tree attacks

(more…)

April 12th, 2018

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QUESTION 61
Which three of the following tasks can be performed using Cisco Unified Real-Time Monitoring Tool? (Choose three.)

A.    collect trace files
B.    stop and start Cisco Unified CCX services
C.    view syslog messages
D.    perform backup and restore functions
E.    monitor the health of the Cisco Unified CCX system

(more…)

April 12th, 2018

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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit which AAA attribute is not used by the Cisco WLC running AireOS 8.0 ? (more…)

April 12th, 2018

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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit which two statement about the given IPV6 ZBF configuration are true? (Choose two) (more…)

April 12th, 2018

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QUESTION 21
What IOS commands display MPLS label mapping on an LSR?

A.    Show mpls ldp parameters
B.    Show mpls ldp bindings
C.    Show mpls forwading-table
D.    Show mpls ldp discovery
E.    Show mpls ldp neighbor detail

Answer: B

QUESTION 22
Drag and Drop Questions

221

Answer:

222

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. The vrf MAINT has been provisioned and used by the Service Provider management network. The engineer discovers that syslog messages are not being received on the syslog server. IP reachability has been validated using ping.
Which issue in the configuration must be corrected?

231

A.    logging on must include the vrf MAINT keyword.
B.    logging host must include the vrf MAINT keyword.
C.    The logging facility must be configured for syslog processing.
D.    The route targets that are configured do not match the route distinguisher.

Answer: B
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2sr/12_2sra/feature/guide/srvrfslg.html#wp1059076

QUESTION 24
Which are the three header fields that affect how Equal-Cost Multipath hashes traffic flow into interface groups? (Choose three.)

A.    source MAC address
B.    source port
C.    source IP address
D.    destination IP address
E.    IP protocol ID
F.    destination MAC address

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 25
An R1 router requires an equal load balancing to reach the prefix 192.168.0.0/16 over two exit points: through R2 and R3 routers. Which two options must be configured on the R1 router to achieve this goal? (Choose two.)

A.    The BGP maximum path feature must be configured on R1.
B.    The BGP PIC core must be enabled on R1
C.    Weight, local-pref, MED, as-path length, origin, and the BGP next-hop IGP cost must be the same for the R2 and R3 IBGP updates to R1.
D.    The BGP Link Bandwidth feature must be applied on R1.
E.    BGP extended community exchange must be enabled between IBGP neighbors.

Answer: AC
Explanation:
BGP link-bandwidth is for unequal-cost routes.

QUESTION 26
A company is deciding between an HVR and SVR solution in order to finalize a virtualization project proposal. Which is an advantage of a HVR solution versus a SVR solution?

A.    A HVR solution implements dedicated data plane resources.
B.    A HVR solution implements shared control plane resources.
C.    A HVR solution introduces significant contention of resources.
D.    A HVR solution implements dedicated chassis resources.

Answer: A
Explanation:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/solutions/collateral/ns341/ns524/ns562/ns573/white_paper_c11-512753_ns573_Networking_Solutions_White_Paper.html

QUESTION 27
Which three of these are optical channel data unit (ODU) overhead fields? (Choose three)

A.    general communication channel 0 (GCC0)
B.    section monitoring
C.    reserved (RES)
D.    general communication channels 1 and 2 (GCC1 GCC2)
E.    tandem connection monitoring activation deactivation (TCM ACT)

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 28
Which three modes are the operating of HDLC? (Choose three)

A.    asynchronous balanced mode (ABM)
B.    normal response mode (NRM)
C.    normal peer mode (NPM)
D.    asynchronous client mode (ACM)
E.    asynchronous response mode (ARM)

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
Asynchronous response mode is an HDLC addition[1] for use over full-duplex links. While retaining the primary/secondary distinction, it allows the secondary to transmit at any time. Asynchronous balanced mode added the concept of a combined terminal which can act as both a primary and a secondary. There are some subtleties about this mode of operation; while many features of the protocol do not care whether they are in a command or response frame, some do, and the address field of a received frame must be examined to determine whether it contains a command (the address received is ours) or a response (the address received is that of the other terminal).

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QUESTION 21
Which OpenStack component implements role-based access control?

A.    Horizon
B.    Nova
C.    Neutron
D.    Keystone (more…)

April 11th, 2018

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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. A user is going through a series of dialing steps on a SIP Type B IP phone (for example, a Cisco 7975) to call an SCCP IP phone. Both phones are registered to the same Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster. Assuming the calling SIP phone is associated with a SIP Dial Rule with a pattern value of 2001, which statement about the call setup process of this call is true? (more…)

April 11th, 2018

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QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit. All routers in this network are configured to place all interfaces in OSPF area 5. R3 is the designated router on the 10.1.5.0/24 network. If you examine the OSPF database on R4, what would the network (type 2) LSA, generated by R3, contain? (more…)

April 11th, 2018

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