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QUESTION 31
You need to design a logical architecture for the procurement team site.
You implement durable links.
Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No (more…)

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QUESTION 31
You need to solve the Enterprise Voice issue experienced by Sydney users.
Which normalization rule should you use for mobile numbers?

A.    ^0[45]\((d8))$
B.    ^0([45]\d{6})$
C.    ^0[45]\d({8})$
D.    ^0([45]\d{8})$

Answer: D

QUESTION 32
Hotspot Question
You need to configure media bypass for Tailspin Toys.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate Media Bypass setting from each list in the answer area.

321
Answer:

322

QUESTION 33
You need to implement the Mediation services solution.
What should you do?

A.    Use a collocated Mediation server on the existing Front End Servers in Melbourne and Singapore.
B.    Deploy a new stand-alone Mediation server pool in Melbourne and Singapore.
C.     Deploy a dedicated Mediation server pool at each site.
D.     Deploy a Survivable Branch appliance at each site.

Answer: A

QUESTION 34
You need to troubleshoot and resolve the issue User1 is reporting.
Which action should you perform to resolve the issue?

A.    Troubleshoot the Quality of Service (QoS) configuration.
B.    Verify that User1 has selected the new headset.
C.    Modify the client configuration to not use G.722 codec.
D.    On the public switched telephone network (PSTN) trunk, verify the aLaw/µLaw configuration.

Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Tailspin Toys has completed the configuration for Enterprise Voice.
You need to resolve the issue users are having with the Call Via Work functionality.
What should you do?

A.    Create and apply a Call Via Work policy. Enable the policy.
B.    Create and apply a client policy that enables the CallViaWork option.
C.    Create and apply a voice policy. Enable the CallViaWork option.
D.    Configure Call Via Work on the public switched telephone network (PSTN) trunk that connects to the PBX.
E.    Create and apply a Call Via Work policy that specifies a value for the AdminCallBackNumber option.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-gb/library/dn933908.aspx

QUESTION 36
Tailspin Toys completes the implementation of Call Admission Control (CAC) for the entire network. You need to configure the Enterprise Voice policies for executives.
What should you do?

A.    Enable the bandwidth policy override feature in the user level voice policy.
B.    Enable the bandwidth policy override feature in the user level client policy.
C.    Enable the bandwidth policy override feature in the machine level group policy object.
D.    Enable the bandwidth policy override feature in the user level group policy object.

Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Drag and Drop Question
You need to configure Tailspin Toy’s desktop clients and phone edition clients to apply Differentiated Services Code Point (DSCP) markings.
What are the minimum actions you need to do? To answer, drag the appropriate configuration option to the client. Each action may be used once, more than once or nor at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
371

Answer:
372

QUESTION 38
Drag and Drop Question
You need to determine the number of lines that are required for the new public switched telephone network (PSTN) connections.
How many lines are required for each location? To answer, drag the appropriate number of line to the correct location. Each number may be used once, more than once, or not at all. Additionally, you may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
381
Answer:
382

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QUESTION 21
What are the two possible methods of disaster recovery for VMware Mirage endpoints? (Choose two.)

A.    Restore the recovery partition to a previous CVD snapshot on an existing device.
B.    Restore files or the entire desktop to a previous CVD snapshot on an existing device.
C.    Restore the hard drive of an existing or a replacement device.
D.    Restore the CVD snapshot to the primary and recover the files.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
https://www.vmware.com/pdf/mirage-administrators-guide-4.pdf (p.199)

QUESTION 22
Which are two custom setup options when installing VMware Horizon Agent on a master image? (Choose two.)

A.    Windows Media Multimedia Redirection
B.    USB Redirection
C.    VMware Horizon Instant Clone Agent
D.    Unity Touch

Answer: AB

QUESTION 23
What are three valid options for writable volumes? (Choose three.)

A.    Limit the attachment of users’ writables to specific computers.
B.    Attach volume on next login or reboot.
C.    Delay writable creation for group/OU members until they log in.
D.    Attach volume immediately.
E.    Prevent user login if the writable is in use on another computer.

Answer: ACE
Explanation:
http://pubs.vmware.com/appvolumes-210/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.appvolumes.user.doc%2FGUID-BF446318-00B8-4D3A-A7DE-AF21604FE3DB.html

QUESTION 24
One of the datastores containing a manual desktop pool is running out of disk space and an administrator adds a second datastore.
Which operation should the administrator perform to resolve the issue?

A.    Rebalance
B.    Recompose
C.    Storage vMotion
D.    Refresh

Answer: C

QUESTION 25
How many ESXi hosts may receive vSphere Desktop licenses if three 100-seat View Standard bundles are purchased?

A.    An unlimited number of ESXi hosts.
B.    Up to 150 dual-socket ESXi hosts.
C.    Up to three dual-socket ESXi hosts.
D.    None, Horizon Standard does not include vSphere Desktop licenses.

Answer: B

QUESTION 26
What are two valid Directory sync intervals in Identity Manager 2.x? (Choose two.)

A.    Once per month
B.    Once per week
C.    Every hour
D.    Every minute

Answer: BC

QUESTION 27
Which Database Server is supported for View Composer and for the Events Databases?

A.    Microsoft SQL Server 2008 SP4
B.    Oracle 11g Release 2
C.    Microsoft SQL Server 2014
D.    vPostgres Database

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://pubs.vmware.com/horizon-view-60/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.vmware.horizon-view.installation.doc%2FGUID-5B2266B8-EA3C-4F49-BABB-2D0B91DE6C1D.html

QUESTION 28
What is the minimum user accounts privilege requirement when installing App Volumes 2.x?

A.    Member of the Local Administrators group.
B.    Member of the Domain Users group.
C.    Member of the Domain Admins group.
D.    Member of the Local Power Users group.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/techpaper/vmware-app-volumes-deployment-considerations.pdf

QUESTION 29
During a new pool creation, an administrator notices that the virtual machines are stuck in the Provisioning state during cloning.
What is the most effective way to correct this issue?

A.    Delete the virtual machines and clone them again.
B.    Change the snapshot on the pool to a newly-created one.
C.    Disable the pool, save the changes, then enable the pool again.
D.    Use vdmadmin 璿 to delete the stuck virtual machines.

Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which three configuration consoles are available in the VMware Identity Manager administrator? (Choose three.)

A.    Identity Manager Admin Console
B.    Connector Services Admin
C.    Policy Management Console
D.    Application Management Console
E.    Appliance Configurator

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
http://pubs.vmware.com/vidm-24/topic/com.vmware.ICbase/PDF/vidm-24-install.pdf

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QUESTION 21
Which two statements are true regarding Layer 2 VPNs? (Choose two.)

A.    Layer 2 VPNs are used to securely extend Ethernet segments over an untrusted medium.
B.    The NSX Edge Service Gateway can form a Layer 2 VPN with a standards-compliant physical appliance.
C.    The Distributed Router can form a Layer 2 VPN to another Distributed Router or NSX Edge Service Gateway.
D.    Layer 2 VPNs require the two VPN endpoints be in the same Layer 2 segment.

(more…)

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QUESTION 21
Which two encryption keys does the host use when encrypting virtual machine files? (Choose two.)

A.    Public Key Infrastructure Encryption Key (PKI)
B.    Master Encryption Key (MEK)
C.    Data Encryption Key (DEK)
D.    Key Encryption Key (KEK)

(more…)

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QUESTION 21
To reduce the attack vectors for a virtual machine, which two settings should an administrator set to false? (Choose two.)

A.    ideX:Y.present
B.    serial.present
C.    ideX:Y.enabled
D.    serial.enabled

(more…)

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QUESTION 21
To reduce the attack vectors for a virtual machine, which two settings should an administrator set to false? (Choose two.)

A.    ideX:Y.present
B.    serial.present
C.    ideX:Y.enabled
D.    serial.enabled

Answer: AB
Reference: http://jackiechen.org/2012/10/05/vsphere-5-0-security-hardening-recommended-vm-settings-configure-script/

QUESTION 22
Which two groups of settings should be reviewed when attempting to increase the security of virtual machines (VMs)? (Choose two.)

A.    Disable hardware devices
B.    Disable unexposed features
C.    Disable VMtools devices
D.    Disable VM Template features

Answer: AB
Explanation:
Make sure you review hardware devices and disable the unnecessary ones. Also disable unexposed features before increasing virtual machines security.

QUESTION 23
Which password meets ESXi 6.x host password requirements?

A.    8kMVnn2x!
B.    zNgtnJBA2
C.    Nvgt34kn44
D.    !b74wr

Answer: A
Explanation:
A valid password requires a mix of upper and lower case letters, digits, and other characters. You can use a 7-character long password with characters from at least three of these four classes, or a 6-character long password containing characters from all the classes. A password that begins with an upper case letter and ends with a numerical digit does not count towards the number of character classes used. It is recommended that the password does not contain the username.
A passphrase requires at least 3 words, can be 8 to 40 characters long, and must contain enough different characters.
Reference:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&externalId=1012033

QUESTION 24
An administrator would like to use a passphrase for their ESXi 6.x hosts which has these characteristics:

– Minimum of 21 characters
– Minimum of 2 words

Which advanced options must be set to allow this passphrase configuration to be used?

A.    retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 7, 21, 7 passphrase=2
B.    retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 21, 7, 7 passphrase=2
C.    retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 2, 21, 7
D.    retry=3 min=disabled, disabled, 21, 21, 2

Answer: B
Explanation:
To force a specific password complexity and disable all others, replace the number with the word with disabled. For example, to force passwords containing characters from all four-character classes: password requisite /lib/security/$ISA/pam_passwdqc.so retry=3 min= disabled,disabled,disabled,disabled,7
Reference:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&externalId=1012033

QUESTION 25
Which Advanced Setting should be created for the vCenter Server to change the expiration policy of the vpxuser password?

A.    VimPasswordExpirationInDays
B.    VimExpirationPasswordDays
C.    VimPassExpirationInDays
D.    VimPasswordRefreshDays

Answer: A
Explanation:
vCenter Server creates the vpxuser account on each ESX/ESXi host that it manages. The password for each vpxuser account is auto-generated when an ESX/ESXi host is added. The password is updated by default every 30 days.
To modify default password settings:
Connect vSphere Client to vCenter Server.
Click Administration > vCenter Server Settings > Advanced Settings. Scroll to the parameter VirtualCenter.VimPasswordExpirationInDays and change the value from the default.
Reference:
http://kb.vmware.com/selfservice/microsites/search.do?language=en_US&cmd=displayKC&externalId=1016736

QUESTION 26
An administrator has been instructed to secure existing virtual machines in vCenter Server.
Which two actions should the administrator take to secure these virtual machines? (Choose two.)

A.    Disable native remote management services
B.    Restrict Remote Console access
C.    Use Independent Non-Persistent virtual disks
D.    Prevent use of Independent Non-Persistent virtual disks

Answer: BD
Reference: http://www.vmware.com/files/pdf/techpaper/VMW-TWP-vSPHR-SECRTY-HRDNG-USLET-101-WEB-1.pdf (page 11, see the tables)

QUESTION 27
An administrator has recently audited the environment and found numerous virtual machines with sensitive data written to the configuration files.
To prevent this in the future, which advanced parameter should be applied to the virtual machines?

A.    isolation.tools.setinfo.disable = true
B.    isolation.tools.setinfo.enable = true
C.    isolation.tools.setinfo.disable = false
D.    isolation.tools.setinfo.enable = false

Answer: A
Explanation:
It is configured on a per-VM basis. You can increase the guest operating system variable memory limit if large amounts of custom information are being stored in the configuration file. You can also prevent guests from writing any name-value pairs to the configuration file. To do so, use the following setting, and set it to ‘true’.

QUESTION 28
Which two statements are correct regarding vSphere certificates? (Choose two.)

A.    ESXi host upgrades do not preserve the SSL certificate and reissue one from the VMware Certificate Authority (VMCA).
B.    ESXi host upgrades preserve the existing SSL certificate.
C.    ESXi hosts have assigned SSL certificates from the VMware Certificate Authority (VMCA) during install.
D.    ESXi hosts have self-signed SSL certificates by default.

Answer: BC
Explanation:
Of course, ESXi host upgrades preserve existing SSL certificate and it also have assigned SSL certificates from VMCA during the installation process.

QUESTION 29
Which three options are available for replacing vCenter Server Security Certificates? (Choose three.)

A.    Replace with Certificates signed by the VMware Certificate Authority.
B.    Make VMware Certificate Authority an Intermediate Certificate Authority.
C.    Do not use VMware Certificate Authority, provision your own Certificates.
D.    Use SSL Thumbprint mode.
E.    Replace all VMware Certificate Authority issued Certificates with self-signed Certificates.

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
There are three options for replace vCenter server security certificates. You can replace it with certificates signed by VMware certificate authority; you can make the VMCA an intermediate certificate authority. Likewise, you can provision your own certificates.

QUESTION 30
When attempting to log in with the vSphere Web Client, users have reported the error:

Incorrect Username/Password

The administrator has configured the Platform Services Controller Identity Source as:

– Type. Active Directory as an LDAP Server
– Domain: vmware.com
– Alias: VMWARE
– Default Domain: Yes

Which two statements would explain why users cannot login to the vSphere Web Client? (Choose two.)

A.    Users are typing the password incorrectly.
B.    Users are in a forest that has 1-way trust.
C.    Users are in a forest that has 2-way trust.
D.    Users are logging into vCenter Server with incorrect permissions.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
The possible explanation for this error might be that the users are typing password incorrectly or they are in a forest with has only 1-way trust. You need 2-way trust to get the credentials accepted.

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QUESTION 21
Which file format supports the exchange of virtual appliances across products and platforms?

A.    FAT32
B.    OVF
C.    VMDK
D.    NTFS

(more…)

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QUESTION 41
Scenario: A Citrix XenApp Administrator configured the audio quality to low in a Citrix Group Policy Object and applied it to all the XenApp servers in the farm. A few weeks later, another administrator from the team created an OU Group Policy Object and set the audio quality to high.
The administrator applied the policy object to the OU that contains all the XenApp servers in the farm.
What would be the audio quality for all the XenApp servers using precedence for the resultant policy?

A.    The audio quality will change every week after the weekly restart phase.
B.    The audio on all the XenApp servers in the farm will be set to low quality.
C.    The audio on all the XenApp servers in the farm will be set to high quality.
D.    Some servers will be set to use low quality audio, and the others will be set to use high quality audio. (more…)

May 2nd, 2018

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QUESTION 21
A Citrix Administrator needs to configure single sign-on to a StoreFront server using an external, secure single URL.

Which type of virtual server can the administrator use to meet this requirement?

A.    Load Balancing
B.    Content Switching
C.    VPN
D.    Unified Gateway

Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Scenario: A NetScaler is configured with the following modes:

* MAC-based Forwarding
* USIP
* USNIP
* Layer 3 mode

A Citrix Administrator configured a new router and now requires some of the incoming and outgoing traffic to take different paths through the new router However, the administrator notices that this is failing and takes a network trace. After a short monitoring period, the administrator notices that the packets are still NOT getting to the new router from the NetScaler.

Which mode should the administrator disable on the NetScaler to facilitate the addition of the new router and successfully route the packets?

A.    MAC-based Forwarding
B.    USIP
C.    Layer 3 mode
D.    USNIP

Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator found that whenever a NetScaler VPX high availability (HA) pair of appliances fails over, the load balanced websites are NOT accessible The administrator investigated the issue and found that the router and switches do NOT support gratuitous ARP (GARP) However, the administrator cannot immediately afford to upgrade the network infrastructure.

What can the administrator do immediately to resolve the issue and prevent a future outage?

A.    Migrate the VPX pair to different hypervisor hosts
B.    Replace the NetScaler VPX appliances with NetScaler MPX appliances
C.    Configure a Virtual MAC (VMAC) on the NetScaler.
D.    Utilize IPv6 instead of IPv4

Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is deploying a new NetScater device and would like to add the NTP server to this appliance Currently, the NTP service is configured at 192.168.55.54.

Which command-line interface command can the administrator use to complete this task?

A.    Add ntp server 192.168.55.54
B.    Add server ntp 192.168.55.54
C.    Add servicegroup NTP UDP
D.    Add service NTP 192.168.55.54 UDP 123

Answer: C

QUESTION 25
Scenario: Users belong to three Authentication, Authorization and Auditing (AAA) groups:
Corporate, Finance and Software.

show aaa groups:
> show aaa group
1. GroupName: Corporate
2. GroupName: Finance
3. GroupName: Software
Done

> show aaa group Corporate
GroupName: Corporate
Weight: 0
Authorization Policy: pol_1, Type: Classic, Priority: 0
> add authorization policy pol_1 ns_true ALLOW
> bind aaa group Corporate -policy pol_1

The user is being denied resources while aaad.debug shows:

Group ‘corporate’ being extracted for user User1

Why is the user being denied access?

A.    The Authorization policy is NOT configured property.
B.    The group attribute is NOT configured in the LDAP policy.
C.    AAA group names are NOT the same as those in Active Directory.
D.    LDAP Base DN is incorrect.

Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is configuring load balancing on a NetScaler appliance for the company web servers. The administrator needs to create a custom monitor that will look for a specific keyword response from the website and will be used to keep the services in an UP state.

Which type of monitor can the administrator create to accomplish this scenario?

A.    An HTTP-ECV monitor with the keyword in the Special Parameters – Receive String field.
B.    A custom TCP-ECV monitor with the keyword in the Special Parameters – Receive String field.
C.    An HTTP monitor with the keyword in the Special Parameters – Response Codes field.
D.    A TCP monitor with the keyword in the Special Parameters – Response Codes field.

Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is concerned about the amount of health checks the NetScaler is sending to the back-end resources. The administrator would like to find a way to remove health checks from specific bound services.

How can the administrator accomplish this?

A.    Use reverse condition monitoring.
B.    Use Service Groups to minimize health checks.
C.    Unbind the current monitor.
D.    Use the No-Monitor Option.

Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Scenario: A XenDesktop Administrator just updated a StoreFront server to the X1 Receiver portal theme. The NetScaler Administrator would like to update the gateway to match StoreFront as closely as possible.

How can the NetScaler Administrator accomplish this with the least amount of administrative effort and without impacting connectivity through the gateway during the change?

A.    Create a new gateway with the X1 theme.
B.    Update the existing gateway by selecting the X1 theme from the global settings.
C.    Create a new gateway with a custom theme to match StoreFront.
D.    Update the existing gateway by building a custom theme to match StoreFront.

Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to implement an Application Delivery Controller (ADC) solution. The administrator needs the appliance to be able to grow with the increasing demand for bandwidth and performance.

Which NetScaler platform will the administrator choose to accommodate the increasing demand for bandwidth and performance?

A.    SDX
B.    VPX
C.    MPX
D.    CPX

Answer: D

QUESTION 30
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is troubleshooting a NetScaler issue. The administrator goes to the command line and from the Shell, tails the ns.log to view the log in real time to find the issue. After a few minutes, the administrator noticed that the logs stopped scrolling and the issue was missed.

How can troubleshooting continue using the ns.log?

A.    The ns.log service has stopped and needs to be restarted.
B.    The ns.log needs to be downloaded to the client machine for full viewing.
C.    The ns.log has reached its 100 KB limit. Press ‘CTRL+C’ to stop it from running and issue the command “tail -f ns.log” to resume.
D.    The ns.log is still running. Press ‘Enter’ and the ns.log will resume.

Answer: A

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QUESTION 51
Scenario: Users of the Finance group lost access to their local drive through their desktop-hosted applications. Due to this issue, those users missed a critical deadline. Now management has requested that a Citrix Administrator provide a report of recent changes to the environment.

Which tool could the administrator use to generate a report of recent changes to the environment?

A.    Event logs
B.    StoreFront
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QUESTION 1
A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be expected of them?

A.    Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
B.    Perform an activity
C.    Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity
D.    Manage an activity

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are objectives of service level management?

1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in

A.    1, 2 and 3 only
B.    1 and 2 only
C.    1, 2 and 4 only
D.    All of the above

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?

A.    Components
B.    Processes
C.    The end-to-end service
D.    Customer satisfaction

Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?

A.    Capacity management
B.    Incident management
C.    Service level management
D.    Financial management

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?

A.    Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B.    Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C.    Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the
service designs that are produced
D.    Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes

Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?

A.    Outcome
B.    Incident
C.    Change
D.    Problem

Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?

A.    Change management
B.    Service portfolio management
C.    Supplier management
D.    Continual service improvement

Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?

1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun

A.    1, 2 and 4 only
B.    2, 3 and 4 only
C.    1, 3 and 4 only
D.    1, 2 and 3 only

Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?

A.    Informational, scheduled, normal
B.    Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C.    Informational, warning, exception
D.    Warning, reactive, proactive

Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A.    Employers
B.    Stakeholders
C.    Regulators
D.    Accreditors

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
You are a system administrator responsible for maintaining Microsoft Dynamics 365 at your company.
Management wants a new application built that allows them to manage requests for vendors.
You need to use the app designer to build the new application on Microsoft Dynamics 365.
What are three items that can be configured in the app designer? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    a site map for the new app
B.    a business rule for the new app
C.    a role to be used by the new app
D.    a dashboard for the new app
E.    a workflow for the new app

Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
You are a system administrator for a Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Microsoft SharePoint online environment.
You need to prevent a user from accessing Microsoft SharePoint while in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
What should you do?

A.    Change the security settings for SharePoint Site on the users security role.
B.    Change the security settings for Document Generation on the user’s security role.
C.    Change the security settings for Enable or Disable User on the user’s security role.
D.    Change the security settings for Document Template on the user’s security role.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In which scenario is the Import Data Wizard method recommended for Microsoft Dynamics 365?

A.    a large company with data on-premises that currently uses Microsoft Dynamics AX and has it staged in Microsoft Azure
B.    a small company that currently uses Microsoft Dynamics 365, Business edition and wants to migrate to Enterprise edition
C.    a large company with Customer Relationship Management (CRM) application data that is stored on the same data center as Microsoft Dynamics 365
D.    a small company with data on-premises that has never used a Customer Relationship Management (CRM) application

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-US/dynamics/crm-customer-center/import-accounts-leads-or-other-data.aspx

QUESTION 4
You are the technology director for a large company that plans to implement Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You are researching the type of licensing that is required for Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which Microsoft Dynamics 365 App is only available with Microsoft Dynamics 365 Plan 2?

A.    Customer Service
B.    Operations
C.    Sales
D.    Field Service

Answer: B
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/pricing

QUESTION 5
You need to deploy a new instance, which will be used to conduct training for users for an indefinite period.
You need to be able to deploy full copies of the production environment into this new.
What should you do?

A.    Create a production instance in a new tenant
B.    Create a trial in a new tenant
C.    Create a production instance in the same tenant.
D.    Create a sandbox instance in the same tenant.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn722373.aspx

QUESTION 6
You are a system administrator for an organization with a Microsoft Dynamics 365 deployment (hosted in a European data center) and Active Directory Federated Services on-premises. Your organization acquires a new company in the US that is using Microsoft Dynamics 365 Online in its own tenant.
The US company can continue to use their Microsoft Dynamics 365 Online instance as is.
All users need to be on the European Active Directory, but they need to use an instance close to them.
What should you do?

A.    Migrate the US instance to the European tenant, and set the instance the US region.
B.    Keep the US tenant and federate Active Directory with both the US and European teanants.
C.    Keep the US tenant, and federate Active Directory with only the European tenant.
D.    Migrate the US instance to the European tenant, and set the instance to the European region.

Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You are a system administrator.
Microsoft schedules an update for your instance of Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which two scenarios will occur? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    If you have not approved the update before the scheduled date, the instance will become inactive until approved or rescheduled.
B.    If you have approved the update, the instance will update on the scheduled date.
C.    The instance will update on the scheduled date, regardless of approval.
D.    If you have not approved the update, the instance will not update on the scheduled date.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn308237.aspx

QUESTION 8
You are an administrator for an organization that uses Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook.
Your users have varying requirements for which data they need to take offline.
You need to ensure that your users have access to the correct data offline.
What should you do?

A.    Instruct users on how to configure the offline filter.
B.    Instruct users on how to configure the synchronization filters.
C.    Create one set of offline filters and distribute those.
D.    Instruct users on how to configure the synchronized fields.

Answer: A
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics/crm-customer-center/choose-records-to-work-with-offline-in-dynamics-365-for-outlook.aspx

QUESTION 9
You are in the initial planning phase of a Microsoft Dynamics 365 implementation. The customer wants to use the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook.
The customer is about to make a decision on whether Microsoft Exchange and Microsoft Dynamics 365 should be on-premises, online, or a hybrid.
You need to advise the customer on how their decision affects their ability to use the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook,
What should you tell them?

A.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook is online only, so both Microsoft Exchange and Microsoft Dynamics 365 must be online.
B.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook requires Microsoft Exchange to be online, but Microsoft Dynamics 365 can be on-premises.
C.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook requires Microsoft Dynamics 365 to be online, but Microsoft Exchange can be on-premises.
D.    The Microsoft Dynamics 365 App for Outlook supports both online-to-online, on-premises to on-premises, and hybrid environments.

Answer: D
Explanation:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn946901.aspx

QUESTION 10
You are a deployment manager for Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Your company decides to implement Microsoft OneNote, and you need to integrate it to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
Which two steps should you take to perform this integration? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Turn on Microsoft OneNote integration.
B.    Turn on Microsoft OneDrive for Business integration.
C.    Turn on Microsoft Office 365 Groups integration.
D.    Turn on server-based Microsoft SharePoint integration.

Answer: AD
Explanation:
https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics/crm-customer-center/set-up-onenote-integration-in-dynamics-365.aspx

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QUESTION 1
What information is included in the DHCP snooping database? (Choose two.)

A.    client MAC address
B.    DHCP server address
C.    DHCP options
D.    VLAN

Answer: AD
Explanation:
When DHCP snooping is enabled, the lease information from the server is used to create the DHCP snooping table, also known as the binding table.
The table shows current IP-MAC bindings, as well as lease time, type of binding, names of associated VLANs, and associated interface.
http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos13.2/topics/concept/port-security-dhcp-snooping-els.html

QUESTION 2
Which three statements are correct about the voice VLAN feature? (Choose three.)

A.    It allows the access port to accept tagged voice and untagged data packets.
B.    It allows you to apply independent CoS actions to data and voice packets.
C.    It can be used with LLDP-MED to dynamically assign the VLAN ID value to IP phones.
D.    It allows trunk ports to accept tagged voice and untagged data packets.
E.    It must use the same VLAN ID as data traffic on a defined interface.

Answer: ABC
Explanation:
A (not D): The Voice VLAN feature in EX-series switches enables access ports to accept both data (untagged) and voice (tagged) traffic and separate that traffic into different VLANs.
B: To assign differentiated priority to Voice traffic, it is recommended that class of service (CoS) is configured prior to enabling the voice VLAN feature. Typically, voice traffic is treated with a higher priority than common user traffic. Without differentiated treatment through CoS, all traffic, regardless of the type, is subject to the same delay during times of congestion.
C: In conjunction with Voice VLAN, you can utilize Link Layer Discovery Protocol Media Endpoint Discovery (LLDP-MED) to provide the voice VLAN ID and 802.1p values to the attached IP phones. This dynamic method associates each IP phone with the appropriate voice VLAN and assigns the necessary802.1p values, which are used by CoS, to differentiate service for voice traffic within a network.
https://kb.juniper.net/InfoCenter/index?page=content&id=KB11062&actp=search

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are correct about aggregate routes in the Junos OS? (Choose two.)

A.    An active route can contribute only to a single aggregate route.
B.    Only one aggregate route can be configured for each destination prefix.
C.    An aggregate route has a default next hop of an IP address.
D.    An aggregate route always shows as active in the routing table.

Answer: AB
Explanation:
A route can contribute only to a single aggregate route.
You can configure only one aggregate route for each destination prefix.

QUESTION 4
Which device is used to separate collision domains?

A.    switch
B.    router
C.    hub
D.    firewall

Answer: A
Explanation:
Modern wired networks use a network switch to reduce or eliminate collisions.
By connecting each device directly to a port on the switch, either each port on a switch becomes its own collision domain (in the case of half duplex links) or the possibility of collisions is eliminated entirely in the case of full duplex links.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Collision_domain

QUESTION 5
What are two types of IS-IS PDUs? (Choose two.)

A.    open PDU
B.    VRF PDU
C.    hello PDU
D.    link-state PDU

Answer: CD
Explanation:
IS-IS hello (IIH) PDUs broadcast to discover the identity of neighboring IS-IS systems and to determine whether the neighbors are Level 1 or Level 2 intermediate systems. Link-state PDUs contain information about the state of adjacencies to neighboring IS-IS systems.
http://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos15.1/topics/concept/is-is-routing-overview.html

QUESTION 6
What are three extended BGP communities? (Choose three.)

A.    Origin: 172.16.100.100:100
B.    domain-id: 192.168.1.1:555
C.    extend:454:350
D.    172.16.90.100:888
E.    target:65000:65000

Answer: ABE
Explanation:
The BGP extended communities attribute format has three fields:
type: administrator: assigned-number. type is the type of extended community and can be either the 16-bit numerical identifier of a specific BGP extended community or one of these types: origin– Identifies where the route originated.
domain-id– Identifies the OSPF domain from which the route originated.
target– Identifies the destination to which the route is going.
bandwidth– Sets up the bandwidth extended community. Specifying link bandwidth allows you to distribute traffic unequally among different BGP paths.
rt-import– Identifies the route to install in the routing table.
src -as– Identifies the AS from which the route originated.
You must specify an AS number, not an IP address.
https://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos12.3/topics/usage-guidelines/policy-defining-bgp-communities-and-extended-communities-for-use-in-routing-policy-match-conditions.html

QUESTION 7
Which two statements are true about DIS elections in IS-IS? (Choose two.)

A.    If a priority tie occurs, the router with the lower subnetwork point of attachment (SNPA) value becomes the DIS.
B.    If a priority tie occurs, the router with the higher subnetwork point of attachment (SNPA) value becomes the DIS.
C.    The router with the lower priority value becomes the DIS.
D.    The router with the higher priority value becomes the DIS.

Answer: BD
Explanation:
In IS-IS, deterministic DIS election makes the possibility of predicting the router that will be elected as DIS from the same set of routers.
The router advertising the numerically highest priority wins, with numerically highest MAC address, also called a Subnetwork Point of Attachment (SNPA), breaking the tie.
https://kb.juniper.net/kb/documents/public/junos/StudyGuides/Ch4_from_JNCIP_studyguide.pdf

QUESTION 8
Host-1 was recently added in the network and is attached to ge-0/0/10 on Switch-A.
Host-1 is powered on and has its interface configured with default Layer 2 settings and an IP address on the 172.17.12.0/24 IP subnet.
Host-1’s MAC address is not shown in Switch-A’s bridging table.
What are three explanations for this state? (Choose three.)

A.    The ge-0/0/10 interface is configured as an access port.
B.    The ge-0/0/10 interface is not operationally or administratively up.
C.    The ge-0/0/10 interface does not have an associated IRB.
D.    The ge-0/0/10 interface has not received any traffic from Host-1.
E.    The ge-0/0/10 interface is configured as a trunk port.

Answer: BCD
Explanation:
B: MAC learning messages received with errors include:
Interface down–The MAC address is learned on an interface that is down.
C: To configure the MAC address of an IRB interface Etc.
http://www.juniper.net/techpubs/en_US/junos15.1/topics/reference/command-summary/show-ethernet-switching-statistics-mac-learning-ex-series.html
https://www.juniper.net/documentation/en_US/junos16.1/topics/example/example-configuring-mac-address-of-an-irb-interface.html

QUESTION 9
Router-1 and Router-2 need to connect through the Internet using a tunneling technology.
Hosts that are connected to Router-1 and Router-2 will be sending traffic up to 1500 bytes.
The maximum segment size is supported across the path is 1520 bytes.
Which tunneling technology will allow this communication to take place?

A.    GRE tunnel
B.    IPsec VPN transport mode
C.    IPsec VPN tunnel mode
D.    IP-IP tunnel

Answer: D
Explanation:
Difference Between GRE and IP-IP Tunnel. Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) and IP-in-IP (IPIP) are two rather similar tunneling mechanisms which are often confused. In terms of less overhead, the GRE header is 24 bytes and an IP header is 20 bytes.

QUESTION 10
What are two interarea OSPF LSA types? (Choose two.)

A.    Type-4 ASBR summary LSAs
B.    Type 3 summary LSAs
C.    Type 1 router LSAs
D.    Type 2 network LSAs

Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1
A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be expected of them?

A.    Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
B.    Perform an activity
C.    Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity
D.    Manage an activity

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