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What does a Citrix Administrator need to do on NetScaler Gateway to ensure that users accept the terms and conditions before they can log on using NetScaler Gateway?
A. Configure a Responder policy.
B. Upload an HTML file to the NetScaler appliance.
C. Create an end user license agreement (EULA).
D. Configure a Rewrite policy.
admin March 12th, 2018
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A Citrix Administrator needs to update a master image for random/non-persistent desktops based on Machine Creation Services.
Which consequence does the administrator need to be aware of when updating the master image?
A. A full new vDisk will be created.
B. A new Personal vDisk will be created.
C. A new full copy from the snapshot will be created.
D. The differencing disks will be merged. (more…)
admin March 12th, 2018
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Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to set up an alert on a service that is important for Desktop OS machine performance. The infrastructure includes 3000 Desktop OS machines and two Provisioning Services servers.
Which service on the Provisioning Services server should the administrator monitor?
D. Two-Stage Boot
admin March 10th, 2018
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Which of the following characteristics differentiate a rainbow table attack from a brute force attack? (Select TWO).
A. Rainbow table attacks greatly reduce compute cycles at attack time.
B. Rainbow tables must include precompiled hashes.
C. Rainbow table attacks do not require access to hashed passwords.
D. Rainbow table attacks must be performed on the network.
E. Rainbow table attacks bypass maximum failed login restrictions.
admin March 9th, 2018
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An administrator would like to review the effectiveness of existing security in the enterprise. Which of the following would be the BEST place to start?
A. Review past security incidents and their resolution
B. Rewrite the existing security policy
C. Implement an intrusion prevention system
D. Install honey pot systems
The main functions of intrusion prevention systems are to identify malicious activity, log information about this activity, attempt to block/stop it, and report it
A company has proprietary mission critical devices connected to their network which are configured remotely by both employees and approved customers. The administrator wants to monitor device security without changing their baseline configuration.
Which of the following should be implemented to secure the devices without risking availability?
A. Host-based firewall
An intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors network or system activities for malicious activities or policy violations and produces reports to a management station. IDS come in a variety of “flavors” and approach the goal of detecting suspicious traffic in different ways. There are network based (NIDS) and host based (HIDS) intrusion detection systems. Some systems may attempt to stop an intrusion attempt but this is neither required nor expected of a monitoring system. Intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS) are primarily focused on identifying possible incidents, logging information about them, and reporting attempts. In addition, organizations use IDPSes for other purposes, such as identifying problems with security policies, documenting existing threats and deterring individuals from violating security policies. IDPSes have become a necessary addition to the security infrastructure of nearly every organization.
IDPSes typically record information related to observed events, notify security administrators of important observed events and produce reports. Many IDPSes can also respond to a detected threat by attempting to prevent it from succeeding. They use several response techniques, which involve the IDPS stopping the attack itself, changing the security environment (e.g. reconfiguring a firewall) or changing the attack’s content.
Lab Sim – Configure the Firewall
Task: Configure the firewall (fill out the table) to allow these four rules:
– Only allow the Accounting computer to have HTTPS access to the Administrative server.
– Only allow the HR computer to be able to communicate with the Server 2 System over SCP.
– Allow the IT computer to have access to both the Administrative Server 1 and Administrative Server 2
Use the following answer for this simulation task.
Below table has all the answers required for this question.
Firewall rules act like ACLs, and they are used to dictate what traffic can pass between the firewall and the internal network. Three possible actions can be taken based on the rule’s criteria:
Block the connection
Allow the connection
Allow the connection only if it is secured
TCP is responsible for providing a reliable, one-to-one, connection-oriented session.
TCP establishes a connection and ensures that the other end receives any packets sent.
Two hosts communicate packet results with each other. TCP also ensures that packets are decoded and sequenced properly. This connection is persistent during the session.
When the session ends, the connection is torn down.
UDP provides an unreliable connectionless communication method between hosts.
UDP is considered a best-effort protocol, but it’s considerably faster than TCP.
The sessions don’t establish a synchronized session like the kind used in TCP, and UDP doesn’t guarantee error-free communications.
The primary purpose of UDP is to send small packets of information.
The application is responsible for acknowledging the correct reception of the data.
Port 22 is used by both SSH and SCP with UDP.
Port 443 is used for secure web connections ?HTTPS and is a TCP port.
Thus to make sure only the Accounting computer has HTTPS access to the Administrative server you should use TCP port 443 and set the rule to allow communication between 10.4.255.10/24 (Accounting) and 10.4.255.101 (Administrative server1) Thus to make sure that only the HR computer has access to Server2 over SCP you need use of TCP port 22 and set the rule to allow communication between 10.4.255.10/23 (HR) and 10.4.255.2 (server2)
Thus to make sure that the IT computer can access both the Administrative servers you need to use a port and accompanying port number and set the rule to allow communication between:
10.4.255.10.25 (IT computer) and 10.4.255.101 (Administrative server1)
10.4.255.10.25 (IT computer) and 10.4.255.102 (Administrative server2)
The security administrator has installed a new firewall which implements an implicit DENY policy by default Click on the firewall and configure it to allow ONLY the following communication.
1. The Accounting workstation can ONLY access the web server on the public network over the default HTTPS port. The accounting workstation should not access other networks.
2. The HR workstation should be restricted to communicate with the Financial server ONLY, over the default SCP port
3. The Admin workstation should ONLY be able to access the servers on the secure network over the default TFTP port.
Instructions: The firewall will process the rules in a top-down manner in order as a first match The port number must be typed in and only one port number can be entered per rule Type ANY for all ports. The original firewall configuration can be reset at any time by pressing the reset button. Once you have met the simulation requirements, click save and then Done to submit.
Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you aren’t specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, you’re denied access by default.
Rule #1 allows the Accounting workstation to ONLY access the web server on the public network over the default HTTPS port, which is TCP port 443.
Rule #2 allows the HR workstation to ONLY communicate with the Financial server over the default SCP port, which is TCP Port 22
Rule #3 & Rule #4 allow the Admin workstation to ONLY access the Financial and Purchasing servers located on the secure network over the default TFTP port, which is Port 69.
Which of the following firewall rules only denies DNS zone transfers?
A. deny udp any any port 53
B. deny ip any any
C. deny tcp any any port 53
D. deny all dns packets
DNS operates over TCP and UDP port 53. TCP port 53 is used for zone transfers.
A security administrator suspects that an increase in the amount of TFTP traffic on the network is due to unauthorized file transfers, and wants to configure a firewall to block all TFTP traffic.
Which of the following would accomplish this task?
A. Deny TCP port 68
B. Deny TCP port 69
C. Deny UDP port 68
D. Deny UDP port 69
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a simple file-exchange protocol that doesn’t require authentication. It operates on UDP port 69.
Sara, a security technician, has received notice that a vendor coming in for a presentation will require access to a server outside of the network. Currently, users are only able to access remote sites through a VPN connection. How could Sara BEST accommodate the vendor?
A. Allow incoming IPSec traffic into the vendor’s IP address.
B. Set up a VPN account for the vendor, allowing access to the remote site.
C. Turn off the firewall while the vendor is in the office, allowing access to the remote site.
D. Write a firewall rule to allow the vendor to have access to the remote site.
Firewall rules are used to define what traffic is able pass between the firewall and the internal network. Firewall rules block the connection, allow the connection, or allow the connection only if it is secured. Firewall rules can be applied to inbound traffic or outbound traffic and any type of network.
A technician is deploying virtual machines for multiple customers on a single physical host to reduce power consumption in a data center. Which of the following should be recommended to isolate the VMs from one another?
A. Implement a virtual firewall
B. Install HIPS on each VM
C. Virtual switches with VLANs
D. Develop a patch management guide
A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. VLANs can be used to isolate traffic between network segments.
A router has a single Ethernet connection to a switch. In the router configuration, the Ethernet interface has three sub-interfaces, each configured with ACLs applied to them and 802.1q trunks.
Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for the sub-interfaces?
A. The network uses the subnet of 255.255.255.128.
B. The switch has several VLANs configured on it.
C. The sub-interfaces are configured for VoIP traffic.
D. The sub-interfaces each implement quality of service.
A subinterface is a division of one physical interface into multiple logical interfaces. Routers commonly employ subinterfaces for a variety of purposes, most common of these are for routing traffic between VLANs. Also, IEEE 802.1Q is the networking standard that supports virtual LANs (VLANs) on an Ethernet network.
Joe, a technician at the local power plant, notices that several turbines had ramp up in cycles during the week. Further investigation by the system engineering team determined that a timed .exe file had been uploaded to the system control console during a visit by international contractors. Which of the following actions should Joe recommend?
A. Create a VLAN for the SCADA
B. Enable PKI for the MainFrame
C. Implement patch management
D. Implement stronger WPA2 Wireless
VLANs are used for traffic management. VLANs can be used to isolate traffic between network segments. This can be accomplished by not defining a route between different VLANs or by specifying a deny filter between certain VLANs (or certain members of a VLAN). Any network segment that doesn’t need to communicate with another in order to accomplish a work task/function shouldn’t be able to do so.
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You are managing a project in an organization is characterized by with rigid rules and policies and strict supervisory controls. Your project, sponsored by your CEO who is new to the company, is to make the organization less bureaucratic and more participative. You are developing your project management plan. Given the organization as it now is set up, as you prepare your plan, you can use which of the following organizational process assets______________.
A. Guidelines and criteria
B. Project management body of knowledge for your industry
C. Organizational structure and culture
D. The existing infrastructure
While you are managing a different type of project, the organization has managed projects before and therefore may have as part of its organizational process assets a project management template, which sets forth guidelines and criteria to tailor the organization’s processes to satisfy specific needs of the project.
You are fairly new to managing a project but have been a team member for many years. You are pleased you were selected to manage your company’s 2015 model line of hybrid vehicles. You are now planning your project and have been preparing the subsidiary plans as well. You realize some project documents also are required to help manage your project. An example of one that you believe will be especial helpful is the______________.
A. Business case
B. Key performance indicators
C. Project management information system
D. Project statement of work
The project statement of work is a useful document as it describes the products, services, or results the project is to deliver. It references the business need, product scope description, and the strategic plan.
You work for a telecommunications company, and when developing a project management plan for a new project, you found that you must tailor some company processes because the product is so different than those products typically produced by your company. To tailor these processes, you will follow______________.
A. Standardized guidelines and work instructions
B. Stakeholder risk tolerances
C. Expert judgment
D. Structure of your company
Standardized guidelines and work instructions are an organizational process asset to consider as the project management plan is developed. They include guidelines and criteria to tailor the organization’s set of standard processes to satisfy the specific needs of the project.
You are implementing a project management methodology for your company that requires you to establish a change control board. Which one of the following statements best describes a change control board?
A. Recommended for use on all (large and small) projects
B. Used to review, evaluate, approve, delay, or reject changes to the project
C. Managed by the project manager, who also serves as its secretary
D. Composed of key project team members
Used to review, evaluate, approve, delay, or reject changes to the project The change control board’s powers and responsibilities should be well defined and agreed upon by key stakeholders. On some projects, multiple change control boards may exist with different
areas of responsibility.
An automated tool, project records, performance indicators, data bases, and financials are examples of items in______________.
A. Organizational process assets
B. Project management information systems
C. Project management planning approaches
D. The tools and techniques for project plan development
The items listed are part of these systems, a tool and technique in both processes.
PMI®, PMBOK® Guide, 2013, 84, 92
You realize that projects represent change, and on your projects, you always seem to have a number of change requests to consider. In your current project to manage the safety of the nation’s cheese products and the testing methods used, you decided to prepare a formal change management plan. An often overlooked type of change request is______________.
A. Adding new subject matter experts to your team
C. Work performance information
D. Enhancing the reviews performed by your project’s governance board
Change requests may include corrective actions, preventive actions, defect repairs, or updates. Updates are changes to formally controlled project documents or plans to reflect modified or additional content.
You have been directed to establish a change control system for your company, but must convince your colleagues to use it. To be effective, the change control system must include______________.
A. Procedures that define how project documents may be changed
B. Specific change requests expected on the project and plans to respond to each one
C. Performance reports that forecast project changes
D. A description of the functional and physical characteristics of an item or system
A change control system is a collection of formal, documented procedures that define the process used to control change and approve or reject changes to project documents, deliverables, or baselines. It includes the paperwork, tracking systems, and approval levels necessary to authorize changes.
You are working on the next generation of software for mobile phones for your telecommunications company. While time to market is critical, you know from your work on other projects that management reviews can be helpful and plan to use them on your project. You are documenting them as part of your______________.
A. Governance plan
B. Change management plan
C. Performance reviews
D. Project management plan
The project management plan describes how the project will be executed and monitored and controlled. While it contains a number of subsidiary plans, it also contains other items including information on key management reviews for contents, their extent, and timing to address open
issues and pending decisions.
Your cost control specialist has developed a budget plan for your project to add a second surgical center to the Children’s Hospital. As you analyze cash flow requirements, you notice that cash flow activity is greatest in the closing phase. You find this unusual because on most projects the largest portion of the budget spent during______________.
B. Monitoring and Controlling
Executing is where the majority of the budget is spent because this is the process where all of the resources (people, material, etc.) are applied to the activities and tasks in the project management plan.
PMI®, PMBOK® Guide, 2013, 56
You are project manager for a systems integration effort and need to procure the hardware components from external sources. Your subcontracts administrator has told you to prepare a product description, which is referenced in a______________.
A. Project statement of work
B. Contract scope statement
C. Request for proposal
Project statement of work
The project statement of work describes in a narrative form the products, services, or results that
the project will deliver. It references the product scope description as well as the business needs and the strategic plan.
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admin March 9th, 2018
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If a project sponsor wants to know the current status and progress of a project, which of the following is the BEST approach to find this information?
A. The project sponsor should obtain the current status from team members, put it into a presentation, and present it to the project manager for review.
B. The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, apply it to the baseline of the schedule, and run a report
C. The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, update the project charter, project management plan, dashboard, and SOW; and then create a status report to provide to the project manager.
D. The scheduler should obtain the current status from team members, update the risk register, and provide the information to the project champion for review
admin March 8th, 2018
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After pushing a security policy from Panorama to a PA-3020 firewall, the firewall administrator notices that traffic logs from the PA-3020 are not appearing in Panorama’s traffic logs. What could be the problem?
A. A Server Profile has not been configured for logging to this Panorama device.
B. Panorama is not licensed to receive logs from this particular firewall.
C. The firewall is not licensed for logging to this Panorama device.
D. None of the firewall’s policies have been assigned a Log Forwarding profile
admin March 8th, 2018
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Which two web filtering inspection modes inspect the full URL? (Choose two.)
admin March 7th, 2018
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Which two features provide physical path resiliency from a Windows 2016 server to an iSCSI LUN on a 12-node ONTAP cluster? (Choose two.)
A. broadcast domains
C. failover groups
D. ALUA (more…)
admin March 7th, 2018
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Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the active scope?
B. Lease times
C. Removing IPs from the active leases
D. Configuring the DNS options
admin March 7th, 2018
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You are an Independent Software Vendor (ISV) developer working on a new solution, and you need to usea custom icon.
What should you create to add this icon to the solution?
A. a reference to the icon in the project
B. an Image folder, and then add the icon
C. a tile item in the model
D. a resource item in the model
admin March 6th, 2018
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You are setting up sales tax on sales order for you customer.
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admin March 6th, 2018
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You department manger wants an estimate of the actual invoice amounts that you will bill for a customer this month.
However, the department manager does not want these amounts posted.
From which two types of invoices can you create a pro forma invoice? Each correct answer present a complete solution.
A. sub ledger
C. payment schedule
D. free text
admin March 6th, 2018
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You create a workflow that automatically sends an email when a condition is met.
The staff reports that emails are not been sent as expected.
You need to correct the issue. What should you do?
A. Export the workflow.
B. Publish the workflow.
C. Set the workflow to required.
D. Activate the workflow.
You are implementing a new business process flow (BPF) in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You specify a name and the primary intent for the BPF, and define the stages and conditions.
You need to configure the composition.
Which two options can you configure? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
You create a business rule for the Account entity.
The business rule must run when you import account records.
Which two conditions must be true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. The scope was set to Account.
B. The scope was set to Entity.
C. A business rule snapshot was successful.
D. A business rule is active.
You have a business process named Know Your Customer. Employees use this business process to capture key information about customers.
You must implement a business process flow (BPF) in Microsoft Dynamics 365 that represents this business process.
You specify the name for the BPF as well as the stage names, entities, and stage category that the BPF will use.
You need to complete the BPF implementation.
Which three additional components can you configure? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Step Required
B. Check Conditions
C. Wait Conditions
D. Step Display Names
E. Data Fields
You have an environment that includes Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Exchange Online.
Email messages between Microsoft Dynamics and Exchange are synchronizing correctly.
You need to ensure that appointments, contacts, and tasks are synchronized.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Configure the default synchronization method for appointments, contacts, and tasks to use server side synchronization.
B. Configure the default synchronization method for appointments, contacts, and tasks to use Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook.
C. Connect Microsoft Dynamics 365 to POP3/SMTP servers.
D. Set up the email router.
You implement Microsoft Office 365 groups for a company.
You need to ensure that all members of a specific security role can see and use an Office 365 group.
Which privilege should you assign to the security role?
A. ISV Extensions
B. Execute Workflow Job
C. Act on behalf of another user
D. Browse Availability
You manage Microsoft Office 365 and Microsoft Dynamics 365 for a company. Some Office 365 users do not have a Microsoft Dynamics 365 license.
You need to ensure that all users can see tasks that are associated with a Microsoft Dynamics 365 opportunity record. What should you implement?
A. Microsoft OneNote integration
B. Microsoft OneDrive integration
C. Microsoft Share Point integration
D. Microsoft Office 365 groups
You add a new entity named Parts to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You need to grant all users that have the Salesperson security role read access to the Parts entity.
Which tab of the Security Role page should you use?
A. Business Management
B. Missing Entities
C. Custom Entities
Users need to be able to embed Microsoft Power Bl visuals into personal dashboards. What should you do?
A. Enable server-based integration with Power Bl.
B. Add Power Bl as a report category.
C. Enable Power Bl visualization embedding.
D. Grant users Power Bl reporting permissions.
You enable folder-level tracking functionality for all users. A user named User1 creates a folder named Dynamics 365 underneath her in box.
User1 moves emails into the Dynamics 365 folder. User1 reports that the emails are not being tracked.
You need to resolve the issue. What should you do?
A. Ensure that the Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook client is installed.
B. Configure server-side synchronization for Microsoft Exchange.
C. Ensure that Microsoft Exchange rules are created.
D. Instruct the user to create a folder tracking rule.
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admin March 6th, 2018
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Click the Exhibit.
You have deployed the access control configuration to the distribution switch.
Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true?
A. All hosts connected to the access switch require authentication to access the network.
B. All hosts connected to the access switch will have access to the network after one host authenticates.
C. All hosts connected to the access switch will have access to the network without authentication.
D. Only the first host to authenticate will have access to the network, other hosts will be blocked.
Click the Exhibit.
Referring to the exhibit, traffic from User-1 is being forwarded to Server-1 with DSCP values that must be written. You must maintain the rewritten DSCP values throughout the network.
Which statement is correct in this scenario?
A. At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R1.
B. At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R1 and R4.
C. At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R1, R2, and R3.
D. At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R4.
Click the Exhibit.
You are adding a Junos Fusion satellite device but one cascade port is not coming on line.
Referring to the exhibit, what would cause this problem?
A. The satellite device is not an EX4300.
B. The cascade ports need to be on the same line card.
C. The FPC number must match the FPC connecting to the satellite device.
D. Interface xe-8/2/1 is in a link down state.
In Layer 2 environment where 802.1X is deployed with its default parameters on EX Series, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. RADIUS authentication requests are sent from authenticator to the authentication server.
B. DHCP traffic from supplicants is denied by default through the authenticator.
C. RADIUS authentication requests are sent from the supplicant to the authentication server.
D. DHCP traffic from supplicants is permitted by default through the authenticator.
Click the Exhibit.
Your network is experiencing congestion across the link between R2 and R3. You must make changes to alleviate traffic congestion from R3 to R2.
Referring to the exhibit, which two commands would accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. [edit protocol ospf]
user@R1# set reference-bandwidth 10g
B. [edit protocol ospf]
user@R3# set reference-bandwidth 10g
C. [edit protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 ]
user@R1# set interface fe-1/0/1 metric 5
D. [edit protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 ]
user@R3# set interface fe-1/0/1 metric 5
Which two statements are correct about using LLDP on junos devices? (Choose two)
A. LLDP operates on layer 2 and layer 3 interfaces
B. LLDP can interoperate with the cisco discovery protocol CDP
C. LLDP is enabled on all devices by default
D. LLDP operates on layer 2 interfaces
You have certainly implemented the configuration shown in the exhibit. After committing these changes, the community devices connected to AS-1 are not able to communicate with the appropriate community devices connected to AS-2.
What must be done to allow these community devices to communicate?
A. You must configure an isolation VLAN ID Under the pvlan-200 on the AS2
B. switch You must configure the ge-0/0/10 interface on AS1 AS THE VPLAN on both switches
C. You must configure an isolation VLAN ID under the VLAN 200 ON both switches
D. You must configure the ge-0/012 interface on both switches as P VLAN trunks
Which two statements is true regarding the next hop attribute? (Choose two)
A. it is not changed when sent across EBGP sessions
B. it is changed to self for IBGP routes learned from EBGP
C. it is not changed for IGBP routes learned from EBGP
D. it is Changed by default when sent across EBGP sessions
Your enterprise network is providing layer 2 connectivity between remote-sites using Q-in- Q tunneling. A customer wants to ensure their connection through your network is also participating in their spanning free topology. In this scenario, which solution must be used?
A. you must configure the Q in Q tunnel to use L2PT to tunnel STP packets
B. you must configure the same isolation ID on both sides of the tunnel
C. you must configure spanning tree on the interfaces connected to the customers sites
D. you must configure spanning tree to tunnel packets
You want to deploy MSTP with multiple regions. Each region should have a unique root bridge to accommodate a set of VLANs. Which three configuration elements must watch on switches participating in this deployment scenario? (Choose three)
A. MSTI toVLAN mapping
B. revision level
C. CST BPDU parameters
D. configuration name
E. bridge priority
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