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A security consultant decides to use multiple layers of anti-virus defense, such as end user desktop anti- virus and E-mail gateway. This approach can be used to mitigate which kind of attack?

A.    Forensic attack
B.    ARP spoofing attack
C.    Social engineering attack
D.    Scanning attack

Answer: C

Which of the following resources does NMAP need to be used as a basic vulnerability scanner covering several vectors like SMB, HTTP and FTP?

A.    Metasploit scripting engine
B.    Nessus scripting engine
C.    NMAP scripting engine
D.    SAINT scripting engine

Answer: C

Which of the following scanning tools is specifically designed to find potential exploits in Microsoft Windows products?

A.    Microsoft Security Baseline Analyzer
B.    Retina
C.    Core Impact
D.    Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer

Answer: D

A security analyst is performing an audit on the network to determine if there are any deviations from the security policies in place. The analyst discovers that a user from the IT department had a dial-out modem installed. Which security policy must the security analyst check to see if dial-out modems are allowed?

A.    Firewall-management policy
B.    Acceptable-use policy
C.    Remote-access policy
D.    Permissive policy

Answer: C

When creating a security program, which approach would be used if senior management is supporting and enforcing the security policy?

A.    A bottom-up approach
B.    A top-down approach
C.    A senior creation approach
D.    An IT assurance approach

Answer: B

Which of the following processes evaluates the adherence of an organization to its stated security policy?

A.    Vulnerability assessment
B.    Penetration testing
C.    Risk assessment
D.    Security auditing

Answer: D

A security consultant is trying to bid on a large contract that involves penetration testing and reporting. The company accepting bids wants proof of work so the consultant prints out several audits that have been performed. Which of the following is likely to occur as a result?

A.    The consultant will ask for money on the bid because of great work.
B.    The consultant may expose vulnerabilities of other companies.
C.    The company accepting bids will want the same type of format of testing.
D.    The company accepting bids will hire the consultant because of the great work performed.

Answer: B

Which type of scan is used on the eye to measure the layer of blood vessels?

A.    Facial recognition scan
B.    Retinal scan
C.    Iris scan
D.    Signature kinetics scan

Answer: B

What is the main reason the use of a stored biometric is vulnerable to an attack?

A.    The digital representation of the biometric might not be unique, even if the physical characteristic is unique.
B.    Authentication using a stored biometric compares a copy to a copy instead of the original to a copy.
C.    A stored biometric is no longer “something you are” and instead becomes “something you have”.
D.    A stored biometric can be stolen and used by an attacker to impersonate the individual identified by the biometric.

Answer: D

During a wireless penetration test, a tester detects an access point using WPA2 encryption. Which of the following attacks should be used to obtain the key?

A.    The tester must capture the WPA2 authentication handshake and then crack it.
B.    The tester must use the tool inSSIDer to crack it using the ESSID of the network.
C.    The tester cannot crack WPA2 because it is in full compliance with the IEEE 802.11i standard.
D.    The tester must change the MAC address of the wireless network card and then use the AirTraf tool to obtain the key.

Answer: A

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Data Acquisition is the process of imaging or otherwise obtaining information from a digital device and its peripheral equipment and media

A.    True
B.    False (more…)

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Which show command will show whether a WLAN is locally or centrally switched on a Cisco Wireless Lan Controller?

A.    show ap config general Cisco_AP
B.    show wlan wlan_id
C.    show flexconnect summary
D.    show flexconnect group detail (more…)

May 25th, 2018

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After the completion of a site survey with Ekahau Site Survey tool, using the default color palette, it is noted that multiple areas are shown as white on the heat map when viewing 5 GHz signal strength data. What does this indicate about the signal strength?

A.    The area is below the minimum threshold configured on the tool.
B.    The area is below the detectable level and indicates no RF signal.
C.    The area is below -100 dBm at coverage cell edge.
D.    The area is below -67 dBm at coverage cell edge.

Answer: A

An engineer must design wireless coverage in thick-walled stairwells. Which information should the engineer refer to when determining where APs can be installed?

A.    Local or National Building Code
B.    IEEE
D.    Cisco Hardware Installation Guide

Answer: D

An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a medical treatment environment, which requires data and voice services. Which of the following is a requirement for the design?

A.    overlapping -72 dBm coverage from two access points
B.    overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
C.    continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
D.    continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point

Answer: C

A network engineer is preparing for an office site survey with a height of 2.5 meters. Which three components are recommended to complete the survey? (Choose three.)

A.    Use APs with external antennas.
B.    Use DoS attack on APs while measuring the throughput.
C.    Use APs with built-in antennas.
D.    Use a battery pack to power APs.
E.    Use a drawing of the office space to draw AP and client placements.
F.    Use APs with directional antennas.

Answer: CDE

An engineer is planning for a 24 Mbps data rate for a new installation.
What is the coverage area from the AP if the environment and other factors are not taken into consideration?

A.    225 feet
B.    80 feet
C.    150 feet
D.    100 feet

Answer: A

Which two options describe best practices that must be completed after a wireless installation is finished? (Choose two.)

A.    Make sure that there are no spaces between the devices on the rack that the Wireless Lan Controller isinstalled.
B.    Consult with the customer to ensure that the IT staff has a complete set of design and installationdocuments.
C.    Make sure the customer is aware that they should consider purchasing a support contract immediately afterthe installation is complete.
D.    Spend time with the customer to show them the controller GUI and inform them how they can reach theCisco TAC if they have any problems.
E.    Test all the customer’s wireless devices and applications to ensure they are working properly.

Answer: BE

A customer is deploying a Greenfield 802.11ac network on a floor that will support approximately 300 wireless devices. Which setting needs to be changed on Prime Infrastructure Planning Tool in order to predict the amount of access points the customer needs to service the new floor?

A.    Data Coverage Support Margin
B.    Demand Settings
C.    Add AP Field
D.    802.11n Protocol Support

Answer: B

What is the recommended minimum speed at the edge of the cells in an 802.11g network for a good Cisco VoWLAN deployment?

A.    11 Mb/s
B.    36 Mb/s
C.    12 Mb/s
D.    18 Mb/s

Answer: C

An engineer is conducting a location readiness test and wants a selected point to be considered location-ready. Which three possible configurations reflect the minimum number of APs needed? (Choose three.)

A.    One AP is resident in each quadrant surrounding the point-in-question.
B.    One AP per 1400 sq. ft. on the map.
C.    Two APs are resident in each quadrant surrounding the point-in- question.
D.    Four APs are deployed on the floor.
E.    Three APs are within 70 feet (21 meters) of the point-in- question
F.    Three APs are deployed on the floor.

Answer: ADE

A network engineer is configuring QoS with a DSCP value of 46. To which queue must the CoS be mapped for priority queuing of the voice frames?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    5
D.    4
E.    3

Answer: C

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Which IPS signature regular expression CLI command matches a host issuing a domain lookup for www.theblock.com?

A.    regex-string (\x03[Tt][Hh][Ee]\x05[Bb][Ll][Oo][Cc][Kk])
B.    regex-string (\x0b[theblock.com])
C.    regex-string (\x03[the]\x05[block]0x3[com])
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A Cisco IOS SSL VPN gateway is configured to operate in clientless mode so that users can access file shares on a Microsoft Windows 2003 server. Which protocol is used between the Cisco IOS router and the Windows server?

B.    NetBIOS
C.    CIFS
D.    HTTP

Answer: C

You are configuring a Cisco IOS SSL VPN gateway to operate with DVTI support. Which command must you configure on the virtual template?

A.    tunnel protection ipsec
B.    ip virtual-reassembly
C.    tunnel mode ipsec
D.    ip unnumbered

Answer: D

Which protocol supports high availability in a Cisco IOS SSL VPN environment?

A.    HSRP
B.    VRRP
C.    GLBP
D.    IRDP

Answer: A

When you configure IPsec VPN High Availability Enhancements, which technology does Cisco recommend that you enable to make reconvergence faster?

A.    EOT
B.    IP SLAs
C.    periodic IKE keepalives
D.    VPN fast detection

Answer: C

Which hash algorithm is required to protect classified information?

A.    MD5
B.    SHA-1
C.    SHA-256
D.    SHA-384

Answer: D

Which cryptographic algorithms are approved to protect Top Secret information?

B.    AES-128
C.    RC4-128
D.    AES-256

Answer: D

Which Cisco firewall platform supports Cisco NGE?

A.    FWSM
B.    Cisco ASA 5505
C.    Cisco ASA 5580
D.    Cisco ASA 5525-X

Answer: D

Which algorithm is replaced by elliptic curve cryptography in Cisco NGE?

A.    3DES
B.    AES
C.    DES
D.    RSA

Answer: D

Which encryption and authentication algorithms does Cisco recommend when deploying a Cisco NGE supported VPN solution?

A.    AES-GCM and SHA-2
B.    3DES and DH
C.    AES-CBC and SHA-1
D.    3DES and SHA-1

Answer: A

An administrator wishes to limit the networks reachable over the Anyconnect VPN tunnels. Which configuration on the ASA will correctly limit the networks reachable to and

A.    access-list splitlist standard permit
access-list splitlist standard permit !
group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal
group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes
split-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified
split-tunnel-network-list value splitlist
B.    access-list splitlist standard permit
access-list splitlist standard permit !
group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal
group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes
split-tunnel-policy tunnelall
split-tunnel-network-list value splitlist
C.    group-policy GroupPolicy1 internal
group-policy GroupPolicy1 attributes
split-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified
split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 1
split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 2
D.    access-list splitlist standard permit
access-list splitlist standard permit !
crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified
crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-network-list splitlist
E.    crypto anyconnect vpn-tunnel-policy tunnelspecified
crypto anyconnect split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 1
crypto anyconnect split-tunnel-network-list ipv4 2

Answer: A

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Which three components comprise the Cisco ISE profiler? (Choose three.)

A.    the sensor, which contains one or more probes
B.    the probe manager
C.    a monitoring tool that connects to the Cisco ISE
D.    the trigger, which activates ACLs
E.    an analyzer, which uses configured policies to evaluate endpoints
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Where in the Cisco ASA appliance CLI are Active/Active Failover configuration parameters configured?

A.    admin context
B.    customer context
C.    system execution space
D.    within the system execution space and admin context
E.    within each customer context and admin context

Answer: C

Which Cisco ASA object group type offers the most flexibility for grouping different services together based on arbitrary protocols?

A.    network
B.    ICMP
C.    protocol
E.    service

Answer: E

Which Cisco ASA show command groups the xlates and connections information together in its output?

A.    show conn
B.    show conn detail
C.    show xlate
D.    show asp
E.    show local-host

Answer: E

When a Cisco ASA is configured in multiple context mode, within which configuration are the interfaces allocated to the security contexts?

A.    each security context
B.    system configuration
C.    admin context (context with the “admin” role)
D.    context startup configuration file (.cfg file)

Answer: B

When troubleshooting redundant interface operations on the Cisco ASA, which configuration should be verified?

A.    The nameif configuration on the member physical interfaces are identical.
B.    The MAC address configuration on the member physical interfaces are identical.
C.    The active interface is sending periodic hellos to the standby interface.
D.    The IP address configuration on the logical redundant interface is correct.
E.    The duplex and speed configuration on the logical redundant interface are correct.

Answer: D

On the Cisco ASA, where are the Layer 5-7 policy maps applied?

A.    inside the Layer 3-4 policy map
B.    inside the Layer 3-4 class map
C.    inside the Layer 5-7 class map
D.    inside the Layer 3-4 service policy
E.    inside the Layer 5-7 service policy

Answer: A

A Cisco ASA requires an additional feature license to enable which feature?

A.    transparent firewall
B.    cut-thru proxy
C.    threat detection
D.    botnet traffic filtering
E.    TCP normalizer

Answer: D

Which four are IPv6 First Hop Security technologies? (Choose four.)

A.    Send
B.    Dynamic ARP Inspection
C.    Router Advertisement Guard
D.    Neighbor Discovery Inspection
E.    Traffic Storm Control
F.    Port Security
G.    DHCPv6 Guard

Answer: ACDG

IPv6 addresses in an organization’s network are assigned using Stateless Address
Autoconfiguration. What is a security concern of using SLAAC for IPv6 address assignment?

A.    Man-In-The-Middle attacks or traffic interception using spoofed IPv6 Router Advertisements
B.    Smurf or amplification attacks using spoofed IPv6 ICMP Neighbor Solicitations
C.    Denial of service attacks using TCP SYN floods
D.    Denial of Service attacks using spoofed IPv6 Router Solicitations

Answer: A

Which two parameters must be configured before you enable SCP on a router? (Choose two.)

A.    SSH
B.    authorization
C.    ACLs
D.    NTP

Answer: AB

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For a KVM session to be successful, which two of these need to be done? (Choose two.)

A.    The Cisco IMC IP address needs to be assigned on the Admin tab.
B.    The Cisco IMC IP address needs to be in the same subnet as the management IP.
C.    The Cisco IMC needs to be upgraded to the same version as the UCS Manager.
D.    The server needs to be fully discovered.

Answer: AD s

A customer is configuring SAN pin groups in a Cisco UCS domain.
The customer notices that pinning is not working and traffic from the vHBA is not passing over the Fibre Channel uplink port. Which of these must be done for pinning to work correctly?

A.    Include the SAN pin group in a vHBA policy and then include the vHBA policy in the service profile
that is assigned to that server.
B.    Include the SAN policy in the Cisco UCS Manager to match with pin groups on the fabric interconnect.
C.    The customer must have Cisco UCS Manager version 2.0 or above.
D.    Fibre Channel switch mode needs to be configured first.

Answer: A

Refer to exhibit. A Cisco UCS admin is troubleshooting an issue with a vNIC not coming up on a blade. When looking at the CLI of the “Fabric Interconnect”,the admin runs this command to view the status of the interface.
Which option describes a possible reason why the interface is stuck in an “initializing” state?


A.    The service profile is not applied to a blade.
B.    The VLANs defined on the vNIC are not defined on a matching uplink port.
C.    The uplink port is down.
D.    The QoS policy on the vNIC is invalid.
E.    The MTU on the vNIC is higher than the MTU configured in the QoS system class.

Answer: C

Which two options are causes for failure of a Cisco C-Series server that is configured to boot from SAN? (Choose two.)

A.    The boot LUN ID is not 0.
B.    The ISCSI target is only available via one via one path through the network.
C.    C-Series does not support boot from SAN.
D.    The KVM dongle is attached to the front of the server with a USB stick installed.
E.    Under the FCoE properties on the vNIC adapter, the FCoE VLAN ID is set to 10.
F.    The boot table for fc0 has not been configured.

Answer: DF

Which command on the Fabric Interconnect displays packet statistics for a given QoS group and MTU size?

A.    show policy-map interface ethernet x/y
B.    show queuing interface ethernet x/y
C.    show interface ethernet x/y
D.    show class-map type qos
E.    show interface queuing ethernet x/y

Answer: B

A Cisco UCS admin is trying to integrate Cisco UCS Manager with Active Directory Authentication. After the configuration is done, the admin is still unable to log in using LDAP credentials. When running a debug on the Fabric Interconnect, this error is displayed:

ldap_build_roles_and_locales_from_attr: No attr for usr profile

Which step was missed in the configuration?

A.    The LDAP provider was not configured correctly.
B.    The proper RBAC role(s) were not assigned to the user.
C.    Cisco UCS Manager 2.1 is required for LDAP integration.
D.    The “Attribute” field in Cisco UCS was left blank.

Answer: B

Which three requirements are needed to configure a blade to boot successfully from Fibre Channel? (Choose three.)

A.    zoning
B.    LUN masking
C.    WWPN device alias
D.    boot from SAN policy
E.    SAN connectivity policy
F.    port assignment
G.    target WWPN needs to be set in the boot from SAN policy

Answer: ABD

Which description of a core file is true?

A.    It is generated by a system failure.
B.    It is generated by a process failure.
C.    It is generated by a component failure.
D.    It is generated by a hardware failure.

Answer: B

Which logs are used to troubleshoot hardware failure?

A.    system event log
B.    audit log
C.    accounting log
D.    gateway logs
E.    system log

Answer: A

A UCS Admin is trying to launch the KVM console but it is failing to launch. All IP Pools for mgmt are configured and the CIMC has an address in UCSM. They SSH to the fabric Interconnect and run an ethanalyzer while issuing a ping from their local PC to the KVM IP address. The ping is successful but they do not see the ICMP requests and replies displayed in the capture. Here is the filter they used:

FIA(nxos)# ethanalyzer local interface mgmt display-filter icmp limit-captured-frames 0

What could be the reason pings are not seen in the capture and the KVM is failing to load?

A.    Java settings are preventing the KVM from loading
B.    There is a duplicate IP address for that CIMC address
C.    The switch upstream from the FI has the wrong vlan configured
D.    The CIMC IP pool is in the same subnet as the Fabric Interconnects mgmt 0 interface

Answer: B

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How many links are there between a second-generation IOM (Cisco UCS 2204 or 2208) and a third- generation half-width blade (Cisco UCS B200 M3 or B22 M3) in a Cisco UCS system?

A.    1
B.    2
C.    4
D.    8

Answer: C

Which policy would you change to form a port channel between a Cisco UCS 6248 and a Cisco UCS 2208?

A.    link aggregation policy
B.    chassis discovery policy
C.    IOM connection policy
D.    link discovery policy

Answer: B

The Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnects offer a new feature that allows dynamic port allocation for all of the 10 Gigabit Ethernet interfaces. What are these ports called?

A.    universal ports
B.    flex ports
C.    unified ports
D.    converged ports

Answer: C

In which situation would you be required to change a Cisco UCS system from end-host mode to switching mode?

A.    Design requirements call for the use of fabric failover.
B.    Fabric interconnect is connecting to disjoint Layer 2 networks upstream.
C.    HSRP routers are directly connected to the fabric interconnect.
D.    Upstream Cisco Nexus 5000 is configured for vPC.

Answer: C

Drag and Drop Question
Drag the characteristic on the left to the appropriate Cisco UCS adapter on the right, where the adapter supports that characterishtic.




Drag and Drop Question
The Cisco Integrated Management Controller on a Cisco Unified Computing B-Series server provides a number of features. Drag the functionality on the left to the appropriate feature on the right.




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The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, and FHRP services, a trouble ticket has been operated indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the address.
Use the supported commands to Isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located?

A.    R1
B.    R2
C.    R3
D.    R4
E.    DSW1
F.    DSW2
G.    ASW1
H.    ASW2 (more…)

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Which command does a network engineer use to verify the spanning-tree status for VLAN 10?

A.    switch# show spanning-tree vlan 10
B.    switch# show spanning-tree bridge
C.    switch# show spanning-tree brief
D.    switch# show spanning-tree summary
E.    switch# show spanning-tree vlan 10 brief (more…)

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Which statement is true about the PPP Session Phase of PPPoE?

A.    PPP options are negotiated and authentication is not performed.
Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 3 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
B.    PPP options are not negotiated and authentication is performed.
Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 4 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
C.    PPP options are automatically enabled and authorization is performed.
Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be encrypted over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
D.    PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed.
Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.

Answer: D

Which type of traffic does DHCP snooping drop?

A.    discover messages
B.    DHCP messages where the source MAC and client MAC do not match
C.    traffic from a trusted DHCP server to client
D.    DHCP messages where the destination MAC and client MAC do not match

Answer: B

Refer to the exhibit. Which command only announces the network out of FastEthernet 0/0?


A.    distribute list 1 out
B.    distribute list 1 out FastEthernet0/0
C.    distribute list 2 out
D.    distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0

Answer: D
Access list 2 is more specific, allowing only, whereas access list 1 permits all networks. This question also asks us to apply this distribute list only to the outbound direction of the fast Ethernet 0/0 interface, so the correct command is “distribute list 2 out FastEthernet0/0.”

Which prefix is matched by the command ip prefix-list name permit ge 24 le 24?


Answer: B
With prefix lists, the ge 24 term means greater than or equal to a /24 and the le 24 means less than or equal to /24, so only a /24 is both greater than or equal to 24 and less than or equal to 24. This translates to any prefix in the 10.8.x.0/24 network, where X is any value in the 0-255 range.
Only the choice of matches this.

Router A and Router B are configured with IPv6 addressing and basic routing capabilities using OSPFv3. The networks that are advertised from Router A do not show up in Router B’s routing table. After debugging IPv6 packets, the message “not a router” is found in the output.
Why is the routing information not being learned by Router B?

A.    OSPFv3 timers were adjusted for fast convergence.
B.    The networks were not advertised properly under the OSPFv3 process.
C.    An IPv6 traffic filter is blocking the networks from being learned via the Router B interface that is connected to Router A.
D.    IPv6 unicast routing is not enabled on Router A or Router B.

Answer: D

After you review the output of the command show ipv6 interface brief, you see that several IPv6 addresses have the 16-bit hexadecimal value of “FFFE” inserted into the address.
Based on this information, what do you conclude about these IPv6 addresses?

A.    IEEE EUI-64 was implemented when assigning IPv6 addresses on the device.
B.    The addresses were misconfigured and will not function as intended.
C.    IPv6 addresses containing “FFFE” indicate that the address is reserved for multicast.
D.    The IPv6 universal/local flag (bit 7) was flipped.
E.    IPv6 unicast forwarding was enabled, but IPv6 Cisco Express Forwarding was disabled.

Answer: A
Extended Unique Identifier (EUI), as per RFC2373, allows a host to assign iteslf a unique 64-Bit IP Version 6 interface identify them EUI-64). This feature is a key benefit over IPv4 as it eliminates the need of manual configuration or DHCP as in the world of IPv4. The IPv6 EUI-64 format address is obtained through the 48-bit MAC address. The Mac address is first separated into two 24-bits, with one being OUI (Organizationally Unique Identifier) and the other being NIC specific. The 16-bit 0xFFFE is then inserted between these two 24-bits to for the 64-bit EUI address. IEEE has chosen FFFE as a reserved value which can only appear in EUI-64 generated from the EUI-48 MAC address.

A packet capture log indicates that several router solicitation messages were sent from a local host on the IPv6 segment. What is the expected acknowledgment and its usage?

A.    Router acknowledgment messages will be forwarded upstream, where the DHCP server will allocate addresses to the local host.
B.    Routers on the IPv6 segment will respond with an advertisement that provides an external path from the local subnet, as well as certain data, such as prefix discovery.
C.    Duplicate Address Detection will determine if any other local host is using the same IPv6 address for communication with the IPv6 routers on the segment.
D.    All local host traffic will be redirected to the router with the lowest ICMPv6 signature, which is statically defined by the network administrator.

Answer: B
Router Advertisements (RA) are sent in response to router solicitation messages. Router solicitation messages, which have a value of 133 in the Type field of the ICMP packet header, are sent by hosts at system startup so that the host can immediately autoconfigure without needing to wait for the next scheduled RA message. Given that router solicitation messages are usually sent by hosts at system startup (the host does not have a configured unicast address), the source address in router solicitation messages is usually the unspecified Ipv6 address (0:0:0:0:0:0:0:0). If the host has a configured unicast address, the unicast address of the interface sending the router solicitation message is used as the source address in the message. The destination address in router solicitation messages is the all-routers multicast address with a scope of the link. When an RA is sent in response to a router solicitation, the destination address in the RA message is the unicast address of the source of the router solicitation message. RA messages typically include the following information:
One or more onlink Ipv6 prefixes that nodes on the local link can use to automatically configure their Ipv6 addresses
Lifetime information for each prefix included in the advertisement
Sets of flags that indicate the type of autoconfiguration (stateless or stateful) that can be completed
Default router information (whether the router sending the advertisement should be used as a default router and, if so, the amount of time (in seconds) the router should be used as a default router)
Additional information for hosts, such as the hop limit and MTU a host should use in packets that it originates

A user is having issues accessing file shares on a network. The network engineer advises the user to open a web browser, input a prescribed IP address, and follow the instructions.
After doing this, the user is able to access company shares.
Which type of remote access did the engineer enable?

B.    IPsec VPN client access
C.    VPDN client access
D.    SSL VPN client access

Answer: D
The Cisco AnyConnect VPN Client provides secure SSL connections to the security appliance for remote users. Without a previously installed client, remote users enter the IP address in their browser of an interface configured to accept SSL VPN connections. Unless the security appliance is configured to redirect http:// requests to https://, users must enter the URL in the form https://<address>.
After entering the URL, the browser connects to that interface and displays the login screen. If the user satisfies the login and authentication, and the security appliance identifies the user as requiring the client, it downloads the client that matches the operating system of the remote computer. After downloading, the client installs and configures itself, establishes a secure SSL connection and either remains or uninstalls itself (depending on the security appliance configuration) when the connection terminates.

Which Cisco IOS VPN technology leverages IPsec, mGRE, dynamic routing protocol, NHRP, and Cisco Express Forwarding?

A.    FlexVPN
D.    Cisco Easy VPN

Answer: B
Dynamic Multipoint Virtual Private Network (DMVPN) is a dynamic tunneling form of a virtual private network (VPN) supported on Cisco IOS-based routers and Unix-like Operating Systems based on the standard protocols, GRE, NHRP and Ipsec. This DMVPN provides the capability for creating a dynamic-mesh VPN network without having to pre-configure (static) all possible tunnel end-point peers, including Ipsec (Internet Protocol Security) and ISAKMP (Internet Security Association and Key Management Protocol) peers. DMVPN is initially configured to build out a hub-and-spoke network by statically configuring the hubs (VPN headends) on the spokes, no change in the configuration on the hub is required to accept new spokes. Using this initial hub- and-spoke network, tunnels between spokes can be dynamically built on demand (dynamic-mesh) without additional configuration on the hubs or spokes. This dynamic-mesh capability alleviates the need for any load on the hub to route data between the spoke networks.
DMVPN is combination of the following technologies:

A network engineer is configuring a solution to allow failover of HSRP nodes during maintenance windows, as an alternative to powering down the active router and letting the network respond accordingly. Which action will allow for manual switching of HSRP nodes?

A.    Track the up/down state of a loopback interface and shut down this interface during maintenance.
B.    Adjust the HSRP priority without the use of preemption.
C.    Disable and enable all active interfaces on the active HSRP node.
D.    Enable HSRPv2 under global configuration, which allows for maintenance mode.

Answer: A
The standby track command allows you to specify another interface on the router for the HSRP process to monitor in order to alter the HSRP priority for a given group. If the line protocol of the specified interface goes down, the HSRP priority is reduced. This means that another HSRP router with higher priority can become the active router if that router has standby preempt enabled. Loopback interfaces can be tracked, so when this interface is shut down the HSRP priority for that router will be lowered and the other HSRP router will then become the active one.

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Refer to the exhibit. Which Cisco Unified Personal Communicator status has the user selected? (more…)

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Cisco Unified Communications Manager is configured with CAC for a maximum of 10 voice calls.
Which action routes the 11th call through the PSTN?

A.    Configure an SIP trunk to the ISR.
B.    Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager AAR.
C.    Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager RSVP-enabled locations.
D.    Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager locations. (more…)

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Which type of IOS Conference bridge requires all users to use the same video format in order to participate in a video conference?

A.    Ad Hoc Conferencing
B.    Homogenous Conferencing
C.    Heterogenous Conferencing
D.    Guaranteed Audio Video Conferencing
E.    Meet-Me Conferencing

Answer: B

Which two of the following DSPs can be used in heterogenous conferencing to achieve the required trans- sizing and transcoding functionality? (Choose two.)

A.    PVDM3-256
B.    PVDM2-256
C.    PVDM-192
D.    PVDM3-32
E.    PVDM3-192
F.    PVDM2-128

Answer: AE

Which of the following simplifies and enhances conference resource management?

A.    Cisco Telepresence Server
B.    Cisco Telepresence MCU
C.    Cisco Telepresence MSE 8000
D.    Cisco IOS routers with packet voice/data module (PVDM)
E.    Cisco Telepresence Conductor

Answer: E

What is the maximum number of 1080p30 HD Conference Participants if an MSE 8000 has four MSE8710 blades clustered?

A.    48
B.    180
C.    720
D.    800

Answer: A

Which route pattern wildcard character is used to terminate the interdigit timeout?

A.    $
B.    !
C.    #
D.    .

Answer: C

When a call is attempted during a particular time of day, what determines the partitions where calling devices search?

A.    time schedules
B.    calling periods
C.    dial schedules
D.    time periods

Answer: A

When configuring an H.323 gateway, which configuration option can be used to set whether an incoming call is considered off the network (OffNet) or on the network (OnNet)?

A.    call classification
B.    call location
C.    device pool
D.    signaling port

Answer: A

When local route groups are used and a user dials 918005551212, what component is ultimately used to route the digits to the local gateway?

A.    The route list applied to the route pattern
B.    The device pool of the calling device
C.    The translation pattern
D.    The gateway or route list associated with the +.! route pattern

Answer: B

You are performing route pattern configuration. You need to ensure that internal extensions are automatically expanded to full external phone numbers for calling line information on outgoing calls.
What should you use?

A.    calling extension expansion
B.    called number expansion
C.    external number mask of the called party
D.    external phone number mask of the calling party

Answer: D

The CSS on a line includes the partitions 911, internal and local. The CSS on the device includes the partitions 911, internal, local and long distance. Which CSS will be used if the phone user dials a local number?

A.    The device CSS will be used since the device CSS is always used first on an IP phone.
B.    Since the dialed digits are a match to a partition is in both Calling Search Spaces the call will use both matched partitions in both Calling Search Spaces in a round-robin format.
C.    If there is both a line and device CSS the line device will only be used.
D.    The line and device CSSs will be combined and the device CSS will take precedence.
E.    The line and device CSSs will be combined and the line CSS will take precedence.

Answer: E

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