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QUESTION 11
Which two web filtering inspection modes inspect the full URL? (Choose two.)

A.    DNS-based.
B.    Proxy-based.
C.    Flow-based.
D.    URL-based.

(more…)

March 7th, 2018

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QUESTION 11
Which two features provide physical path resiliency from a Windows 2016 server to an iSCSI LUN on a 12-node ONTAP cluster? (Choose two.)

A.    broadcast domains
B.    MPIO
C.    failover groups
D.    ALUA (more…)

March 7th, 2018

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QUESTION 11
Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the active scope?

A.    Reservations
B.    Lease times
C.    Removing IPs from the active leases
D.    Configuring the DNS options

(more…)

March 7th, 2018

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QUESTION 11
You are an Independent Software Vendor (ISV) developer working on a new solution, and you need to usea custom icon.

What should you create to add this icon to the solution?

A.    a reference to the icon in the project
B.    an Image folder, and then add the icon
C.    a tile item in the model
D.    a resource item in the model

(more…)

March 6th, 2018

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QUESTION 11
You are setting up sales tax on sales order for you customer.
You need to define the setup so that it calculates as follows:

(more…)

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QUESTION 11
You department manger wants an estimate of the actual invoice amounts that you will bill for a customer this month.
However, the department manager does not want these amounts posted.
From which two types of invoices can you create a pro forma invoice? Each correct answer present a complete solution.

A.    sub ledger
B.    customer
C.    payment schedule
D.    free text

(more…)

March 6th, 2018

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QUESTION 11
You create a workflow that automatically sends an email when a condition is met.
The staff reports that emails are not been sent as expected.
You need to correct the issue. What should you do?

A.    Export the workflow.
B.    Publish the workflow.
C.    Set the workflow to required.
D.    Activate the workflow.

Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You are implementing a new business process flow (BPF) in Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You specify a name and the primary intent for the BPF, and define the stages and conditions.
You need to configure the composition.
Which two options can you configure? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    Dialogs
B.    Workflows
C.    Steps
D.    Actions

Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
You create a business rule for the Account entity.
The business rule must run when you import account records.
Which two conditions must be true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    The scope was set to Account.
B.    The scope was set to Entity.
C.    A business rule snapshot was successful.
D.    A business rule is active.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 14
You have a business process named Know Your Customer. Employees use this business process to capture key information about customers.
You must implement a business process flow (BPF) in Microsoft Dynamics 365 that represents this business process.
You specify the name for the BPF as well as the stage names, entities, and stage category that the BPF will use.
You need to complete the BPF implementation.
Which three additional components can you configure? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A.    Step Required
B.    Check Conditions
C.    Wait Conditions
D.    Step Display Names
E.    Data Fields

Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
You have an environment that includes Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Exchange Online.
Email messages between Microsoft Dynamics and Exchange are synchronizing correctly.
You need to ensure that appointments, contacts, and tasks are synchronized.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A.    Configure the default synchronization method for appointments, contacts, and tasks to use server side synchronization.
B.    Configure the default synchronization method for appointments, contacts, and tasks to use Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook.
C.    Connect Microsoft Dynamics 365 to POP3/SMTP servers.
D.    Set up the email router.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 16
You implement Microsoft Office 365 groups for a company.
You need to ensure that all members of a specific security role can see and use an Office 365 group.
Which privilege should you assign to the security role?

A.    ISV Extensions
B.    Execute Workflow Job
C.    Act on behalf of another user
D.    Browse Availability

Answer: A

QUESTION 17
You manage Microsoft Office 365 and Microsoft Dynamics 365 for a company. Some Office 365 users do not have a Microsoft Dynamics 365 license.
You need to ensure that all users can see tasks that are associated with a Microsoft Dynamics 365 opportunity record. What should you implement?

A.    Microsoft OneNote integration
B.    Microsoft OneDrive integration
C.    Microsoft Share Point integration
D.    Microsoft Office 365 groups

Answer: D

QUESTION 18
You add a new entity named Parts to Microsoft Dynamics 365.
You need to grant all users that have the Salesperson security role read access to the Parts entity.
Which tab of the Security Role page should you use?

A.    Business Management
B.    Missing Entities
C.    Custom Entities
D.    Customization

Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Users need to be able to embed Microsoft Power Bl visuals into personal dashboards. What should you do?

A.    Enable server-based integration with Power Bl.
B.    Add Power Bl as a report category.
C.    Enable Power Bl visualization embedding.
D.    Grant users Power Bl reporting permissions.

Answer: C

QUESTION 20
You enable folder-level tracking functionality for all users. A user named User1 creates a folder named Dynamics 365 underneath her in box.
User1 moves emails into the Dynamics 365 folder. User1 reports that the emails are not being tracked.
You need to resolve the issue. What should you do?

A.    Ensure that the Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook client is installed.
B.    Configure server-side synchronization for Microsoft Exchange.
C.    Ensure that Microsoft Exchange rules are created.
D.    Instruct the user to create a folder tracking rule.

Answer: D

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QUESTION 31
Click the Exhibit.

311

312

You have deployed the access control configuration to the distribution switch.

Referring to the exhibit, which statement is true?

A.    All hosts connected to the access switch require authentication to access the network.
B.    All hosts connected to the access switch will have access to the network after one host authenticates.
C.    All hosts connected to the access switch will have access to the network without authentication.
D.    Only the first host to authenticate will have access to the network, other hosts will be blocked.

Answer: B

QUESTION 32
Click the Exhibit.

321

Referring to the exhibit, traffic from User-1 is being forwarded to Server-1 with DSCP values that must be written. You must maintain the rewritten DSCP values throughout the network.

Which statement is correct in this scenario?

A.    At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R1.
B.    At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R1 and R4.
C.    At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R1, R2, and R3.
D.    At a minimum, you must rewrite the DSCP values on R4.

Answer: D

QUESTION 33
Click the Exhibit.

331

You are adding a Junos Fusion satellite device but one cascade port is not coming on line.

Referring to the exhibit, what would cause this problem?

A.    The satellite device is not an EX4300.
B.    The cascade ports need to be on the same line card.
C.    The FPC number must match the FPC connecting to the satellite device.
D.    Interface xe-8/2/1 is in a link down state.

Answer: D

QUESTION 34
In Layer 2 environment where 802.1X is deployed with its default parameters on EX Series, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    RADIUS authentication requests are sent from authenticator to the authentication server.
B.    DHCP traffic from supplicants is denied by default through the authenticator.
C.    RADIUS authentication requests are sent from the supplicant to the authentication server.
D.    DHCP traffic from supplicants is permitted by default through the authenticator.

Answer: AB

QUESTION 35
Click the Exhibit.

351

Your network is experiencing congestion across the link between R2 and R3. You must make changes to alleviate traffic congestion from R3 to R2.

Referring to the exhibit, which two commands would accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A.    [edit protocol ospf]
user@R1# set reference-bandwidth 10g
B.    [edit protocol ospf]
user@R3# set reference-bandwidth 10g
C.    [edit protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 ]
user@R1# set interface fe-1/0/1 metric 5
D.    [edit protocols ospf area 0.0.0.0 ]
user@R3# set interface fe-1/0/1 metric 5

Answer: BD

QUESTION 36
Which two statements are correct about using LLDP on junos devices? (Choose two)

A.    LLDP operates on layer 2 and layer 3 interfaces
B.    LLDP can interoperate with the cisco discovery protocol CDP
C.    LLDP is enabled on all devices by default
D.    LLDP operates on layer 2 interfaces

Answer: AC

QUESTION 37
You have certainly implemented the configuration shown in the exhibit. After committing these changes, the community devices connected to AS-1 are not able to communicate with the appropriate community devices connected to AS-2.
What must be done to allow these community devices to communicate?

A.    You must configure an isolation VLAN ID Under the pvlan-200 on the AS2
B.    switch You must configure the ge-0/0/10 interface on AS1 AS THE VPLAN on both switches
C.    You must configure an isolation VLAN ID under the VLAN 200 ON both switches
D.    You must configure the ge-0/012 interface on both switches as P VLAN trunks

Answer: D

QUESTION 38
Which two statements is true regarding the next hop attribute? (Choose two)

A.    it is not changed when sent across EBGP sessions
B.    it is changed to self for IBGP routes learned from EBGP
C.    it is not changed for IGBP routes learned from EBGP
D.    it is Changed by default when sent across EBGP sessions

Answer: CD

QUESTION 39
Your enterprise network is providing layer 2 connectivity between remote-sites using Q-in- Q tunneling. A customer wants to ensure their connection through your network is also participating in their spanning free topology. In this scenario, which solution must be used?

A.    you must configure the Q in Q tunnel to use L2PT to tunnel STP packets
B.    you must configure the same isolation ID on both sides of the tunnel
C.    you must configure spanning tree on the interfaces connected to the customers sites
D.    you must configure spanning tree to tunnel packets

Answer: A

QUESTION 40
You want to deploy MSTP with multiple regions. Each region should have a unique root bridge to accommodate a set of VLANs. Which three configuration elements must watch on switches participating in this deployment scenario? (Choose three)

A.    MSTI toVLAN mapping
B.    revision level
C.    CST BPDU parameters
D.    configuration name
E.    bridge priority

Answer: ABD

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QUESTION 11
A security analyst is adding input to the incident response communication plan.
A company officer has suggested that if a data breach occurs, only affected parties should be notified to keep an incident from becoming a media headline.
Which of the following should the analyst recommend to the company officer?

A.    The first responder should contact law enforcement upon confirmation of a security incident in order for a forensics team to preserve chain of custody.
B.    Guidance from laws and regulations should be considered when deciding who must be notified in order to avoid fines and judgements from non-compliance.
C.    An externally hosted website should be prepared in advance to ensure that when an incident occurs victims have timely access to notifications from a non-compromised recourse.
D.    The HR department should have information security personnel who are involved in the investigation of the incident sign non-disclosure agreements so the company cannot be held liable for customer data that might be viewed during an investigation. (more…)

March 5th, 2018

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QUESTION 11
Which one of the following factors is NOT one on which Authentication is based?

A.    Type 1 Something you know, such as a PIN or password
B.    Type 2 Something you have, such as an ATM card or smart card
C.    Type 3 Something you are (based upon one or more intrinsic physical or behavioral traits), such as a fingerprint or retina scan
D.    Type 4 Something you are, such as a system administrator or security administrator

(more…)

March 3rd, 2018

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QUESTION 11
Driven mainly by cost, many companies outsource computing jobs which require a large amount of processor cycles over a short duration to cloud providers.
This allows the company to avoid a large investment in computing resources which will only be used for a short time.
Assuming the provisioned resources are dedicated to a single company, which of the following is the MAIN vulnerability associated with on-demand provisioning?

A.    Traces of proprietary data which can remain on the virtual machine and be exploited
B.    Remnants of network data from prior customers on the physical servers during a compute
job
C.    Exposure of proprietary data when in-transit to the cloud provider through IPSec tunnels
D.    Failure of the de-provisioning mechanism resulting in excessive charges for the resources

(more…)

March 2nd, 2018

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QUESTION 271
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some questions sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You administer an Azure subscription for your company. You plan to deploy a virtual machine (VM) to Azure.

The VM environment must provide 99.95% uptime. A single switch outage must not cause the VM environment to be unavailable VM must be offline due to installation of an update that requires a reboot.

You need to configure the environment.

Solution: Create two availability sets. Place a VM in each availability set.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A.    Yes
B.    No (more…)

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QUESTION 216
You administer Windows 10 Enterprise computers.

Users are able to download applications from the Internet and install them on their computers.

You need to ensure that users can install only digitally signed applications from approved publishers.

What should you do?

A.    Create AppLocker Publisher rules.
B.    Turn on Windows SmartScreen.
C.    Enable the Check for signatures on downloaded programs option.
D.    Add publishers’ websites to the Trusted Sites zone.

(more…)

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QUESTION 11
The phase 3 of the Risk Management Framework (RMF) process is known as mitigation planning.
Which of the following processes take place in phase 3?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A.    Identify threats, vulnerabilities, and controls that will be evaluated.
B.    Document and implement a mitigation plan.
C.    Agree on a strategy to mitigate risks.
D.    Evaluate mitigation progress and plan next assessment.

Answer: BCD

QUESTION 12
Gary is the project manager of his organization. He is managing a project that is similar to a project his organization completed recently. Gary has decided that he will use the information from the past project to help him and the project team to identify the risks that may be present in the project. Management agrees that this checklist approach is ideal and will save time in the project.
Which of the following statement is most accurate about the limitations of the checklist analysis approach for Gary?

A.    The checklist analysis approach is fast but it is impossible to build and exhaustive checklist.
B.    The checklist analysis approach only uses qualitative analysis.
C.    The checklist analysis approach saves time, but can cost more.
D.    The checklist is also known as top down risk assessment

Answer: A

QUESTION 13
What are the subordinate tasks of the Initiate and Plan IA C&A phase of the DIACAP process?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A.    Develop DIACAP strategy.
B.    Assign IA controls.
C.    Assemble DIACAP team.
D.    Initiate IA implementation plan.
E.    Register system with DoD Component IA Program.
F.    Conduct validation activity.

Answer: ABCDE

QUESTION 14
Information risk management (IRM) is the process of identifying and assessing risk, reducing it to an acceptable level, and implementing the right mechanisms to maintain that level. What are the different categories of risk?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A.    System interaction
B.    Human interaction
C.    Equipment malfunction
D.    Inside and outside attacks
E.    Social status
F.    Physical damage

Answer: BCDEF

QUESTION 15
Neil works as a project manager for SoftTech Inc. He is working with Tom, the COO of his company, on several risks within the project. Tom understands that through qualitative analysis Neil has identified many risks in the project. Tom’s concern, however, is that the priority list of these risk events are sorted in “high-risk,” “moderate-risk,” and “low-risk” as conditions apply within the project. Tom wants to know that is there any other objective on which Neil can make the priority list for project risks. What will be Neil’s reply to Tom?

A.    Risk may be listed by the responses inthe near-term
B.    Risks may be listed by categories
C.    Risks may be listed by the additional analysis and response
D.    Risks may be listed by priority separately for schedule, cost, and performance

Answer: D

QUESTION 16
In which type of access control do user ID and password system come under?

A.    Administrative
B.    Technical
C.    Power
D.    Physical

Answer: B

QUESTION 17
You and your project team are identifying the risks that may exist within your project. Some of the risks are small risks that won’t affect your project much if they happen. What should you do with these identified risk events?

A.    These risks can be accepted.
B.    These risks can be added to a low priority risk watch list.
C.    All risks must have a valid, documented risk response.
D.    These risks can be dismissed.

Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Your project uses a piece of equipment that if the temperature of the machine goes above 450 degree Fahrenheit the machine will overheat and have to be shut down for 48 hours. Should this machine overheat even once it will delay the project’s end date. You work with your project to create a response that should the temperature of the machine reach 430, the machine will be paused for at least an hour to cool it down. The temperature of 430 is called what?

A.    Risk identification
B.    Risk response
C.    Risk trigger
D.    Risk event

Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Adrian is the project manager of the NHP Project. In her project there are several work packages that deal with electrical wiring. Rather than to manage the risk internally she has decided to hire a vendor to complete all work packages that deal with the electrical wiring. By removing the risk internally to a licensed electrician Adrian feels more comfortable with project team being safe.
What type of risk response has Adrian used in this example?

A.    Mitigation
B.    Transference
C.    Avoidance
D.    Acceptance

Answer: B

QUESTION 20
James work as an IT systems personnel in SoftTech Inc. He performs the following tasks:

– Runs regular backups and routine tests of the validity of the backup data.
– Performs data restoration from the backups whenever required.
– Maintains the retained records in accordance with the established information classification policy.

What is the role played by James in the organization?

A.    Manager
B.    User
C.    Owner
D.    Custodian

Answer: D

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QUESTION 51
The screen captures above show the 802.1X authentication profile and AAA profile settings for a VAP.
If machine authentication passes and user authentication fails, which role will be assigned? (more…)

March 1st, 2018

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QUESTION 11
Which statement about PEST analysis is true?

A.    Political aspects can be identified easily through surveys.
B.    Economic and social implications are relevant only with the public sector.
C.    A PEST analysis allows you to take an independent, outside-in view of factors that impact the customer’s situation.
D.    A PEST analysis often can be related directly to specific findings from the operating process analysis.

(more…)

March 1st, 2018

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